Hey, thanks for explaining it so well. Did I understand it correctly, that one could have another estimator of beta1 but as long as the assumption of the zero conditional mean is fulfilled at the end and a beta1 is in the sum before, the estimator will be unbiased?
This is the BEST and EASIEST explanation I've found on this subject thus far. THANK YOU! much clearer!
Thank you!
man thank god for all the guys like you out here
Thank you very much for this very detailed explanation. It helped a lot in my studies in Econometrics
Damn! You're a lifesaver. You decomposed everything to my understanding. Thanks🙏
I had problems understanding why the average y was null, and you explained it at 1:21. Many thanks!
this video literally carried me on one of the questions on my econometrics exam lol
THANK YOU, I HOPE YOU HAVE A GREAT YEAR
You made something impossible look easy. thank you!
Top notch good sir!
Great video. Cheers!
Thanks for this! It really helped
thank you so much for explaining in details. regards
Hey, thanks for explaining it so well. Did I understand it correctly, that one could have another estimator of beta1 but as long as the assumption of the zero conditional mean is fulfilled at the end and a beta1 is in the sum before, the estimator will be unbiased?
Thanks so much!!
Great videos
Can you help with one thing to understand, like how we can obtain intercept and slope of B0 and B1 after shifting line l to l'?
Did not understand why (xi -x bar) is not conditional on x... Please help
Did not understand at 7:53 why we had (Xi-X) equal to just Xi?
At 1:15 we showed this for sum(xi-xbar)(yi-ybar)=sum(xi-xbar)yi. At 7:53 it's just the same property sum(xi-xbar)(xi-xbar)=sum(xi-xbar)xi
Var of Beta not Hat possess var of Beta 1 hat .solve this problem plz?
Easynomics>my lecturer🚶♂️
Aoa can u Hepl me in one problem?
Explanation is too fast and not clear
pleas help me