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Why the "value in use" is not considered? I believe $7M is the value in use and hence it is higher than fair value which then company considers $1M as impaired loss.
Thank you so much for this video! For the first JE, would it also be okay if we credited the asset directly instead of the accum depreciation? or is that only for intangibles?
Hello Professor, I have 2 questions 1. Why HTM and AFS security impaired differently, What is the need for different models 2. If there is a Expected credit Loss for AFS, how can be Fair value at market be more than the what lender is able to pay. Won't market get the information about lender's inability to pay full amount and rectify market price accordingly
Your videos are very useful. Thank you.
So nice of you! Thank you and please visit the website for more farhatlectures.com/ Start your free trial!
Let’s get connected:
LinkedIn: www.linkedin.com/in/professorfarhat
Facebook: facebook.com/farhatlectures
Instagram: instagram.com/farhatlectures/?hl=en
Reddit: www.reddit.com/user/Farhatlectures
Why the "value in use" is not considered? I believe $7M is the value in use and hence it is higher than fair value which then company considers $1M as impaired loss.
My question exactly
Thank you so much for this video! For the first JE, would it also be okay if we credited the asset directly instead of the accum depreciation? or is that only for intangibles?
Hello Professor, I have 2 questions
1. Why HTM and AFS security impaired differently, What is the need for different models
2. If there is a Expected credit Loss for AFS, how can be Fair value at market be more than the what lender is able to pay.
Won't market get the information about lender's inability to pay full amount and rectify market price accordingly
Antonmursid🙏🙏🙏🙏🙏✌🇮🇩🇮🇩🇮🇩🇮🇩🇮🇩✌👌💝🙏
This only works on one headphone... This is so painful, fix your audio please