I have never heard such complete clarity and brevity in explaining such a difficult equation until I came across to this video! He is an excellent orator when it comes to explaining Black Scholes! Thank you so much for this video. I am going to subscribe you.
25:42 This seems wrong! If you have interest r for time period [0,T], then the interest rate per interval would be r/n. And, hence the compound interest would be P*(1 + r/n)^{n*T}. Now, we know that \lim_{n \to \infty} (1 + r/n)^n = e^{rt} And if we raise to the power both sides by T, that is how we get Compound interest to be e^{rT}. What professor has done is absolutely wrong! PS: T should be time-period in years
Thank You Sir. Very Well Explained. I have one question..at 20:50 how did you write that differential equation? How S(t) satisfies that differential eqn?
one bit most confusing thing about pricing is the "time value". since it's not exactly true that the value of C option equals to difference between P and K, because there is also the time value. for example if P < K the option still may have the positive value, so this is kind of confusing at first glance, how to do the math regarding this.
Why compute the option price based on the time of expiration when in fact, the option holder can execute the option at any time between the time of purchase and the expiration date?
He's talking about a europian option. What you are saying is valid for an American option, where the value of an option is determined by deciding if it's optimal to buy the stock or hold the option.
The principle still holds for a non-dividend paying stock since you are not supposed to exercise the option before maturity. Therefore, you can treat an American call option as a European call option for non-dividend paying stocks
great lecture but I disagree on his assessment about people with small account not ot mess with options, infact it is the exact opposite. Options are great instruments for leverage and you can be on wither side of the market . If 95% of the options are never realized that just means you become option seller instead of buyer.
Excellent introduction to the topic for beginners. I love this professor's sincereity.
I have never heard such complete clarity and brevity in explaining such a difficult equation until I came across to this video! He is an excellent orator when it comes to explaining Black Scholes! Thank you so much for this video. I am going to subscribe you.
thx a lot for this clear and comprehensive narration
Never seen such a good teacher like you sir..
Very informative by professor like you.
maachallah , you are a good prof.you explain very well
very good lecture
25:42 This seems wrong! If you have interest r for time period [0,T], then the interest rate per interval would be r/n. And, hence the compound interest would be P*(1 + r/n)^{n*T}.
Now, we know that \lim_{n \to \infty} (1 + r/n)^n = e^{rt} And if we raise to the power both sides by T, that is how we get Compound interest to be e^{rT}. What professor has done is absolutely wrong!
PS: T should be time-period in years
Thank You Sir. Very Well Explained. I have one question..at 20:50 how did you write that differential equation? How S(t) satisfies that differential eqn?
S(t) is assumed to follow the SDE of Geometric brownian motion. It is assumed in the black scholes model.
one bit most confusing thing about pricing is the "time value". since it's not exactly true that the value of C option equals to difference between P and K, because there is also the time value. for example if P < K the option still may have the positive value, so this is kind of confusing at first glance, how to do the math regarding this.
No, value of c is equal to the value difference between p and k on expiry date.
Why compute the option price based on the time of expiration when in fact, the option holder can execute the option at any time between the time of purchase and the expiration date?
He's talking about a europian option. What you are saying is valid for an American option, where the value of an option is determined by deciding if it's optimal to buy the stock or hold the option.
The principle still holds for a non-dividend paying stock since you are not supposed to exercise the option before maturity. Therefore, you can treat an American call option as a European call option for non-dividend paying stocks
Check Feynman-Kac formula and that's what you're talking about :) the BS formula is a special case of Feynman-Kac formula.
great lecture but I disagree on his assessment about people with small account not ot mess with options, infact it is the exact opposite. Options are great instruments for leverage and you can be on wither side of the market . If 95% of the options are never realized that just means you become option seller instead of buyer.
Many better videos about options pricing. Try the "Khan Academy" or "Option Alpha" channels.