Why is it that your carrying amount is not 13 900 but the fair value amount when you doing the lower of carrying amount and fair value less cost to sell??
It's because of the basis used. The company uses the revaluation model and this means that before reclassifying any asset, we have to revalue it to it's current market price/value. In this case, this is 15.4m. This figure now becomes the new carrying amount of the asset.
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Why is it that your carrying amount is not 13 900 but the fair value amount when you doing the lower of carrying amount and fair value less cost to sell??
yeah im having same question
It's because of the basis used. The company uses the revaluation model and this means that before reclassifying any asset, we have to revalue it to it's current market price/value. In this case, this is 15.4m. This figure now becomes the new carrying amount of the asset.
So is it correct that the impairment (cost to sell) isn't taken from the revaluation surplus in OCI?
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My question also. I think you are right and it should be charged against the revaluation surplus.
@@christoskritikos2290 I think so too
Where from this example was taken?(sorry for my english)
if you arent the best.. i donk who is!
nice and valuable lecture
Not the example saying Namibia 🇳🇦 😏
What is ppe
Property, plant and equipment.