Mechanical Vibration: MDOF - Mode Shape

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  • Опубликовано: 12 сен 2024
  • This video explains the calculation of the eigenvectors which determine the vibration mode shape of a 2-DOF system.

Комментарии • 18

  • @lianzhewang210
    @lianzhewang210 4 года назад +3

    Super!
    Concise and clear. Really helpful to me.

  • @nurkhadijah2758
    @nurkhadijah2758 4 года назад +3

    nice sir. more easier to understand. keep it up!

  • @gokulsatyasriram4614
    @gokulsatyasriram4614 4 года назад +2

    Nice one.

  • @barny-6727
    @barny-6727 4 года назад +2

    Are the nautural freqency tagged to any of the motion?

    • @AzmaPutra-channel
      @AzmaPutra-channel  4 года назад +1

      For each natural frequency, the motion (or vibration shape) will be unique. We call it 'mode shape'.

    • @barny-6727
      @barny-6727 4 года назад

      @@AzmaPutra-channel is the natural requency tagged to X1 or X2.
      For example can I say natural frequency omega_1 is the nautral frequency of degree of freedom x_1

    • @AzmaPutra-channel
      @AzmaPutra-channel  4 года назад +1

      Barny - No. Each natural frequency will determine the relation between x_1 and x_2. This relation will determine the ‘shape’ of the vibration at that particular natural frequency. So it is NOT omega_1 is for x_1 and omega_2 is for x_2.

    • @barny-6727
      @barny-6727 4 года назад

      @@AzmaPutra-channel wow thank you so much for your time. Very kind of you. 😚.
      It was of great help!

  • @nurkhadijah2758
    @nurkhadijah2758 4 года назад +3

    can you teach analysis vibration control sir?

    • @AzmaPutra-channel
      @AzmaPutra-channel  4 года назад +1

      What is that in specific? passive vibration control?

    • @nurkhadijah2758
      @nurkhadijah2758 4 года назад

      @@AzmaPutra-channelyes sir. thank you for noticed me sir.

  • @amirulmajdi5114
    @amirulmajdi5114 Год назад

    Is it the natural frequency that both of the omega we need to assume 1 and 2?

  • @Stralla56
    @Stralla56 2 года назад

    When w=2, why do you solve for x2 when the leading entry is x1

    • @AzmaPutra-channel
      @AzmaPutra-channel  2 года назад

      We assume x1=1, which means we 'normalise' all the amplitude with the amplitude of x1.

  • @Indian2020_Jai_Jai
    @Indian2020_Jai_Jai 8 месяцев назад

    No explanation of equations development!!

    • @AzmaPutra-channel
      @AzmaPutra-channel  8 месяцев назад

      Please refer this video ok: ruclips.net/video/u5mVhSC5-zE/видео.htmlsi=gVCWqpwZD9bGVK3A