Further re your discussion of Tuggy's views. 1 Cor 11:12c " all things out of God" is a repetition of 86 " one God the Father out of whom all things". In addition I propose keeping the word placement of " in the Lord" of 11:11 in its original place in the Greek. That is, it is part of verse 12 which becomes "for, in the Lord, just as woman out of man ....". Now "woman out of man" is repeating 11:8 which itself is taken from Gen 2. If I am correct, then , in the Lord, is not a statement of our redeemed status in Christ, but rather, is a statement that the creation of man and woman is in the Lord. That is, it is a repetition of and specifying of 8:6 " all things through Him, and we through him". Just as a side note. Reconfiguration the sentence of 11:10 by removing "because of the angels" from the end of verse 10 and putting it at the beginning of verse 11 gives us a chance to figure out exegetically from within the 1 Cor 11 text what because of the angels might mean. The sentences for verses 11 and 12 become. 11 Nevertheless, because of the angels, neither woman without man nor man without woman. 12, for, in the Lord, just as woman out of man, so also man through woman. The logic of the argument flows much more smoothly. The reference to the angels is to Psalm 8 ... but that is a bit too long to explain for now.
Michael. Some other observations from Deuteronomy 4 and 10. Deut 4 includes reference to God and LORD God as creator of all things and of man in verses 32 and 19. Deut 10 which contains "love .. serve LORD God with your heart .. and soul .." in v13 with an immediate reference in v14 to LORD God the creator of heaven and earth and all in it. That is, Paul's explaining creation in 1 Cor 8:6 is not out of place with the Shema. Also, in Deut 10 LORD God is described as "God of God's and Lord of lords" which is very similar to Paul's words about many gods and many lords.
Further re your discussion of Tuggy's views. 1 Cor 11:12c " all things out of God" is a repetition of 86 " one God the Father out of whom all things".
In addition I propose keeping the word placement of " in the Lord" of 11:11 in its original place in the Greek. That is, it is part of verse 12 which becomes "for, in the Lord, just as woman out of man ....". Now "woman out of man" is repeating 11:8 which itself is taken from Gen 2.
If I am correct, then , in the Lord, is not a statement of our redeemed status in Christ, but rather, is a statement that the creation of man and woman is in the Lord. That is, it is a repetition of and specifying of 8:6 " all things through Him, and we through him".
Just as a side note. Reconfiguration the sentence of 11:10 by removing "because of the angels" from the end of verse 10 and putting it at the beginning of verse 11 gives us a chance to figure out exegetically from within the 1 Cor 11 text what because of the angels might mean.
The sentences for verses 11 and 12 become.
11 Nevertheless, because of the angels, neither woman without man nor man without woman.
12, for, in the Lord, just as woman out of man, so also man through woman.
The logic of the argument flows much more smoothly.
The reference to the angels is to Psalm 8 ... but that is a bit too long to explain for now.
Michael. Some other observations from Deuteronomy 4 and 10.
Deut 4 includes reference to God and LORD God as creator of all things and of man in verses 32 and 19.
Deut 10 which contains "love .. serve LORD God with your heart .. and soul .." in v13 with an immediate reference in v14 to LORD God the creator of heaven and earth and all in it.
That is, Paul's explaining creation in 1 Cor 8:6 is not out of place with the Shema.
Also, in Deut 10 LORD God is described as "God of God's and Lord of lords" which is very similar to Paul's words about many gods and many lords.