Sorry for the dumb question but I still can't figure out how is this a one dimensional problem if the mu "particle" is technically moving in a 2d plane
It's not actually 1D - it's just that we can reduce the math to an equivalent 1D problem by having this fake potential energy that's associated with rotation.
there is a problem, you are a genius agains me:)) master...I must work so so much about this lecture.
Great explanation. was really helpful
Learning from L&L Mechanics and this video really helped! Thanks!
thank you very much
Glad it helped
Pardon me,l asked that a Little difficult problems on classical mechanics questions. l will text you those question. Thank you for your cooperation.
At 14:19 he forgot to add X(deriv) at the second last term in the bracket
Another was at 31:32 when r(dot) was missed from both eqns.. however both of these didnt make any error propogate.
There's a lot of dots to keep track of - that's for sure. I think I'm going to make a shorter version of this.
Sorry for the dumb question but I still can't figure out how is this a one dimensional problem if the mu "particle" is technically moving in a 2d plane
It's not actually 1D - it's just that we can reduce the math to an equivalent 1D problem by having this fake potential energy that's associated with rotation.
@@DotPhysics thank you so much for the response. im binging taylor's book right now :D
Look at the end of this video before you waste half an hour on nothing.