one seriously crazy integral!

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  • Опубликовано: 31 окт 2024

Комментарии • 50

  • @SamLindskougMBGY
    @SamLindskougMBGY 4 дня назад +15

    can already tell its gonna be a banger

  • @CM63_France
    @CM63_France 2 дня назад +3

    Hi,
    "ok, cool" : 1:14 , 2:16 , 3:25 , 4:25 , 6:17 ,
    "terribly sorry about that" : 5:01 , 6:49 , 8:35 .

  • @stefanalecu9532
    @stefanalecu9532 3 дня назад +12

    I am not the French guy, so I'll take his place this time around
    "ok cool": 1:14, 2:16 (pen scratches ASMR), 3:24, 6:16, 8:34
    "terribly sorry (about that)": 0:03, 6:47

    • @jpf119
      @jpf119 3 дня назад

      I do need a RUclips plugin to un-OKcool the video, could someone help? 🤣

    • @alphazero339
      @alphazero339 3 дня назад

      Hello, thanks for your attempt. You did a good job, you can be him while he's gone. I also enjoyed that you included ASMR pen scratch in the list. Overall, the experience was positive as I can now click any of the timestamps you provided and hear the author speak the phrase. I do not know what happened to French guy, but we can hope he is okay and safe. For now, I'm voting you to take his place.

    • @CM63_France
      @CM63_France 2 дня назад

      @@alphazero339 wait a minute 🤣

  • @Nottherealbegula4
    @Nottherealbegula4 4 дня назад +20

    Waiting for the french guy to list the "ok cool" and "terribly sorry about that" (:

    • @alphazero339
      @alphazero339 4 дня назад

      He must have retired

    • @jpf119
      @jpf119 3 дня назад +1

      I might unsubscribe because of that🤣

    • @CM63_France
      @CM63_France 2 дня назад

      Terribly sorry about that, I am back 🗼💈

    • @alphazero339
      @alphazero339 2 дня назад

      @CM63_France okaay, cool

  • @ByeUnderGround24
    @ByeUnderGround24 4 дня назад +15

    Do a x=1/t sub on original integral that gives I = -I + (alpha-beta) int 0 to ∞ dx/1+x² so I = π(alpha-beta)/4
    Thanks a lot for sharing new methods and manipulations . Each and every video of yours is a gem!

    • @venkatamarutiramtarigoppul2078
      @venkatamarutiramtarigoppul2078 4 дня назад +1

      Ya i also did that i am way too lasy . What to do . But the solution develepment in the video is kinda cool

    • @rishabhhappy
      @rishabhhappy 4 дня назад +1

      awesome approach bhaiya

    • @Grecks75
      @Grecks75 4 дня назад +2

      Wow, can it be that simple? I just checked it. Incredible, awesome! What a symmetry! 🎉

    • @ByeUnderGround24
      @ByeUnderGround24 3 дня назад

      ​@@rishabhhappy rishabh bro 🌚🗿

    • @zachariastsampasidis8880
      @zachariastsampasidis8880 3 дня назад

      Well it's an equivalent transformation since he did x to arctanx to π/2 - χ

  • @trelosyiaellinika
    @trelosyiaellinika День назад

    Yep, you have a talent in choosing really elegant integrals.

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  День назад +1

      @@trelosyiaellinika thanks mate

  • @MrWael1970
    @MrWael1970 2 дня назад

    Very nice idea. Thank you

  • @michaelihill3745
    @michaelihill3745 3 дня назад

    That was pretty awesome!

  • @NeofeaxFeax
    @NeofeaxFeax 3 дня назад +2

    sub x-> 1/x gives you the answer on a single line

  • @xanterrx9741
    @xanterrx9741 3 дня назад

    Great video i hope for more videos.

  • @farfa2937
    @farfa2937 3 дня назад +1

    Expectation: Some combination of gamma, beta and zeta. Reality: A linear function with delusions of grandeur.

  • @SabaSa6a
    @SabaSa6a 4 дня назад

    The expansion of tan is not necessary here
    I remember that there is a similar question giving α=sqrt(2)

  • @Aplicapitagoras
    @Aplicapitagoras 4 дня назад +2

    @Math 505 any tips on how to identify which substituition I should make to solve more difficult integrals?

  • @giuseppemalaguti435
    @giuseppemalaguti435 4 дня назад

    X=tgθ..poi uso Feymann I(α)..I'(α)..I(β)..I'(β).2I'=π/2....I=(π/4)(α-β)

  • @Lepl_Acie
    @Lepl_Acie День назад

    Hello , sorry for being annoying , may you complete your complex analysis explanation , it's very nice but I want more 🙂 .
    because I hope I can use counter intergals for solving so many things ...

  • @chancia8990
    @chancia8990 4 дня назад

    okay this is iis awesome

  • @Ownageffects
    @Ownageffects 4 дня назад

    please make a video of how to do the leibniz rule by details please and when can we switch the operators

  • @charliecox13
    @charliecox13 День назад

    I know this will get drowned out. But on mathstackexchange I say an integral I haven’t been able to solve easily. The integral from 0 to 1 of f(x)=(x^3)tan(x^2). I tried Feynmans, exponentiating it, by parts, and writing it using summation. Can you give me a solution, or better yet a step by step?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  День назад

      @@charliecox13 I'll take a shot at it

  • @user-x4x-g1e
    @user-x4x-g1e 10 часов назад

    Hello , can we solve \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\frac{dx}{\left( e^x-x
    ight)^{n}+\pi^{n}} for any natural number n greater than or equal to 2 ? Can u make a video about that ?
    However, I solved this problem for n=2 by using residue theorem and rectangle contour with height of i2pi and lengh of 2R : beautiful result with 1/(W(1)+1) where W is the principal branch of W lambert function but i don't know how to approch this problem for any natural number n greater than or equal to 2...
    Can i have a help ?
    Thx

  • @tpgmflint
    @tpgmflint 4 дня назад

    when can theta be transformed to pi/2 - theta? (6:23)

    • @lotaniq4449
      @lotaniq4449 4 дня назад

      If the limits are from (0 to a), you can always do a substitution theta’ = a - theta. Its just a substitution, easy to verify.

    • @absol4844
      @absol4844 3 дня назад

      ​@@lotaniq4449 But doesn't leave that us with extra negative sign? Since a - θ evaluated at a is 0 and at 0 it's a, so the bounds are upside down now...

    • @lotaniq4449
      @lotaniq4449 3 дня назад

      @@absol4844 yes but dtheta’=-dtheta, so that - cancels the other -

    • @atulyaroy8962
      @atulyaroy8962 2 дня назад

      ​​@@absol4844 the lower and upper limits will be interchanged if you do the substitution so to make the limits same you use the negative sign. This called the King property check it out :}

    • @atulyaroy8962
      @atulyaroy8962 2 дня назад

      It's called the King property, it can be easily proved by substitution (lower limit + upper limit -t)

  • @AyushRajput-xw2ru
    @AyushRajput-xw2ru 4 дня назад

    Day by day kamaal questions are getting juicy . ❤

  • @Ownageffects
    @Ownageffects 4 дня назад +1

    kamaal can i be the zeta to your (s) ? (no diddy)

  • @tanusreekar2839
    @tanusreekar2839 4 дня назад +3

    okayyy cool

  • @davidblauyoutube
    @davidblauyoutube 3 дня назад

    Noice

  • @alikazemi1329
    @alikazemi1329 4 дня назад

    👏👏👏❤♥🙏👍

  • @apnakaamkrelala
    @apnakaamkrelala 4 дня назад +3

    Greetings and welcome back our kamaal😌✨🤌 my ears were eagerly waiting for your ohk cool and terribly sorry about that😭🤌✨💓