Hi I recently ran several Bayesian independent samples t tests using the informed prior vs the default prior. I understand why the same analyses using the informed prior gives a bigger Bayes factor compared to the default, but I didn’t expect the effect sizes to all be smaller (and credible intervals narrower) when using the informed prior. Does anybody know why this might be?
Thank You!
You are a great teacher.
Great video! One question: Why don't you use the default Prior P(M)? Why do you use the uniform prior distribution instead?
Hi
I recently ran several Bayesian independent samples t tests using the informed prior vs the default prior. I understand why the same analyses using the informed prior gives a bigger Bayes factor compared to the default, but I didn’t expect the effect sizes to all be smaller (and credible intervals narrower) when using the informed prior. Does anybody know why this might be?