I don’t understand how people would say that Jesus isn’t God because of verse 18. John was just telling everyone a few lines earlier that the Word was God and also the Word became flesh. It would be obvious that someone has “seen.”
Jesus is, was, the image of the invisible God. Who became man. God is Spirit. The bible also says we shall see Him as He is for we shall be like Him. In His kingdom. Flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom. Stephen saw Father God & Jesus. Just before dying. What other Bible verses do you know... Like Jesus walking on the water was also a representation of The Holy Spirit in the beginning hovering over the surface of the waters... God bless JESUS IS Alive!!! ⛪️🏃♂️💕🌍💨
But did you notice how he 'proved ; that the word was 'divine' and not the person of God. The Son of God is 'divine; but is not 'God' or the Father. This argues against the doctrine he intends to support.
@Gerry Quinn - That misses the whole point. True divinity only resides in the nature of God. If something is created, it cannot be divine. Angels are not divine. Neither is Satan or any other spiritual power. Only God is divine. To call the Word, "divine," is to call Him God.
@@AChristianGuy : May I humbly suggest that you look up a dictionary. In biblical times angels were viewed as divine beings. . The Son of God can be viewed as divine by the fact that he is the Son of God. The language of 'nature' or essence is not the language of scripture but the language of neo-platonism from which later Church doctrine evolved.
The God of the Old Testament is the Son Himself, who ruled from the first creation until He became flesh. God is not quantified in terms of how many there are, but rather in terms of His infinite ONE, which are equal to the Father. Of course, in the hierarchy, the Father is above the Son. John 1:18 says that no one has ever seen God because of His glory. When Moses asked to see God's glory (Exodus 33:18), God offered to show him His back. This is because God's glory is His face, and no one can see His face and live (Exodus 33:20). The confrontation of "face to face" is somewhat of a pre-incarnate Christ. Just like Jacob in Genesis 32:30, who called the place Peniel, saying, "It is because I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared," and Moses in Deuteronomy 34:10, who was the only prophet in Israel whom the LORD knew face to face. But the manifestation of the flesh, The Son radiates God’s own glory and expresses the very character of God, ................."
@@user-cg2tw8pw7jwe don’t have to, they tell us u dumbazz. Whatever views you have, whatever hood u claim has failed for 2000 years to make them known to the masses. God is Triune. “We have seen God”- Judges 13;18-23
The Father has been seen. Daniel 7:13-14. The word seen in John 1:18 is referring to seeing with the mind's eye, i.e. to know, that's why John says "but the only begotten God has made him *known"*
Consider Matthew 11:27 and Luke 10:22 in light of the Son of Man's presence before the Ancient of Days. Daniel 7 is a special instance in which both personages are interacting simultaneously.
@@AChristianGuy "no one *knows* the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to *reveal* him." It's just paraphrasing John 1:18 and again talks about knowing God and the Son is the one who makes him known. Daniel 7, special case or not, the Father is seen by Daniel in a vision. If you reject that Daniel saw the Father because it's a vision then you would have to reject that Paul said Jesus appeared to him in 1 Cor 15:8.
@@AChristianGuy I'll admit, John 1:18 could be talking about physically seeing God "as he is" because he exists outside time and space. That's because Jesus is also called the one whom no man has seen in 1 Tim 6:16. But based on context with how John contrasts the first part of John 1:18 with "knowing" God in the second part (lit. "exegeting") and with God having been seen physically and in visions in the OT it's more likely John meant seeing with the mind's eye, in my opinion. Here's a copy paste from JW who _unintentionally_ provided some good verses to support this view. JW Quote: Fact: The Greek words in the Bible for “eye” and “seeing” are sometimes used in the sense of discerning or perceiving rather than referring to literal sight. * (Matthew 13:15; Luke 19:42; Romans 15:21; Ephesians 1:18)
I wasn't attempting to say that Daniel didn't see the Father. My point was that, given that the Son is present also in His vision, it is the Son's prerogative & ability to have shown Daniel the Father - something that no other OT prophet experienced. That's what I meant when I referred to it as a, "special instance." I don't disagree with you that this is a vision (i.e. mind's eye). With respect to John, the point that he expands upon though is seeing of any kind (literally or in vision) - Jesus' testimony of Abraham in Ch.8 in light of Gen.18 substantiates this. Gen. 18 was not in vision; it was very much literal seeing and interaction.
Watch - Why did Jesus say, "I can do nothing on My own initiative?": ruclips.net/video/aGe5O1jg2_M/видео.html *Note* - The verse citation from 4:17-5:03 should say (John 8:39-40), not (John 8:56).
The spoken word is not me, but from my mouth. Jesus and the Father are in complete unity of mind and spirit. They have separate wills. This is seen in the Garden when Christ asks for the cup to pass away from him, but even then, his will be done. This proves that Jesus has his own will that is separate from the father. Jesus, his title, is the literal word of God. That is his rank... No one comes to the father but by following the command of the spoken word. You follow the word by following the spoken teachings of Christ. Love one another, forgiveness of others, etc. As far as no man seeing the father, this is literal. The father is an always has been in heaven... There is a reason why Jesus tells his disciples that they "know not what spirit you are of" when they want to call down fire from heaven like the Prophets of Yahweh. Yehweh is the Usurper, the one who was cast down to earth and awaiting judgement. Yahweh commands all follow him and exalt him as the one and only God. He is called, "the Ruler of this Earth", which is why the Devil tempts Jesus with the Kingdoms of the Earth... Because he literally owns the Earth. Yahweh is the God of this World who established laws on this World. Jesus sets us free from all this, uniting us with the one true God, who is in heaven... Who no man has ever seen.
I like this explanation.. i dont understand why people find it so hard to understand that Jesus was begotton from the Father, Jesus is his literal son!
John : 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. 4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men. 5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. Joh 5:17 But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work. Jesus Is Equal with God Joh 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God. The Authority of the Son Joh 5:19 Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise. Joh 5:20 For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel. Joh 5:21 For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will. Joh 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son: Philippians 2: 5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: 6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: 8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: 10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; 11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. Colossians 1:15-20 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven. The Rider on a White Horse Rev 19:11 And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. Rev 19:12 His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself. Rev 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
Here are the answers to your questions. 1. Jesus ignored the temptation from Satan. When Satan tempted him he just said “it is written” repeatedly. And this proves that he is God because he never fell for the temptation. 2. “No one has seen God” is referring to the father in the Trinity. Jesus was came down to earth as the son. And this doesn’t make him a separate god because he said that in John 10:30 that he and the father are one. 3. Jesus came down as a God in human form. But I have a question for you. How did Jesus create a bird out of clay (5:110) when the Quran claims that only Allah can create life (6:2)? This simple factor proves that Jesus Christ is God ✝️
You mentioned Exodus 33:11 where it's says Moses spoke to God face to face. However, Exodus 33:20 says no man can see God and live. Also, Galatians 3:19 says the law was transmitted through angels. Therefore, it may have seemed like Moses was speaking to God but he was speaking with an angel that God was speaking through. In short, John 1:18 should be taken exactly the way you read it.
I think the argument for skeptics would be that Jesus isn’t God because people have seen Jesus. So in your example someone would say if Jesus is God, how are people seeing Jesus and still living.
@acb9318 l am saying that Jesus isn't God. I am also saying that even when it seems God is speaking to someone directly in the Bible he's not. He's speaking through a representative which is close enough.
God also appeared as a cloud, fire etc. no one has seen god as his true "self" only what he shows himself as. God is beyond time and space. Perhaps something we can't fathom as a human. It also is curious to me in mark when John the Baptist baptized Jesus, the heavens opened up and the spirit came down Into him like a dove. Almost like Jesus was a vessel. The spirit also took Jesus through the 40 day test. Curious what someone's thought on that is? That's what it seems to me. He also prays to god by himself, which is curious if he is just god. Why would be pray to himself?
Is it possible Jesus had two natures: Fully God and fully man, since the foundation of the world up until he ascended into heaven (Acts 1) giving up his human nature? In Acts 8 Saul went blind when Jesus was in his presence because he gave up his flesh in Chapter 1. Jesus did not need his human nature after he atone for our sins and rising from the dead. Going back to John 1:18, could it be talking about Jesus only having one nature: fully God?
The Father has been seen. Daniel 7 he is the ancient of days. Rev 4 and 5 John sees the Father sitting on the throne, and Moses was talking to the father in exodus 23:20-23.
Can you show us the Bibleverse confirming your Assertion? Why is Jesus called the Son then and why does he pray to his Heavenly Father, can you explain that to me?
Jesus also said that "I and the Father are one". And I've heard that anyone who saw God would die if only because of the likely difference between the seer and the awesome beauty of God. In other words, die of sorrow. Something like that.
To have everlasting life you absolutely must trust in the person and finished work of Christ alone for salvation. The person is Jesus Christ (Lord God Almighty) clothed in unsinful humanity. The work is His perfect life, shed blood, physical death, burial, and physical ressurection from the dead. This means that saving repentance is realizing that you are a sinner deserving of God's just punishment in Hell and turn (repent) from whatever you trusted in before, if indeed you trusted in anything; to trusting in the person and finished work of Christ alone for salvation.
@@gerryquinn5578 God is one Spirit being. God is one Spirit being eternally present as three distinct centers of consciousness within God (hence the Godhead of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit). One being, one essence, yet three distinct persons. As persons each is definitely not either of the other two. However, as one Spirit being we can definitely say that the Father is the Son is the Holy Spirit. Jesus name means Jehovah saviour or Yahweh saves. In Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily.
The verse in John 1:18 does not say anything or imply anything about God being seen through scriptures, or being seen conceptually. It is a literal physical seeing as in a vision. Modern scholars show the translation as missing the word "except"
Father was seen in Daniel 7 though as the ancient of days. We know it’s the father as the son of man approached him. I believe this is talking about the divinity of the God head.
Correct. The unique thing about that situation is the presence of the pre-incarnate Son, who can reveal the Father to whom He wishes (cf. Matt 11:27; Luke 10:22)
@@AChristianGuy but the father was seen that’s the point so when you say no one has seen the father it’s kinda not entirely correct. Idk what exactly the churches position is but I believe it’s about the divine nature which we aren’t allowed to make icons of
John's point in 1:18 is that no one has seen the Father without the Son revealing the Father to them. In Daniel's vision, the Son is present in His pre-incarnate state as He stands before the Father. Thus, He is able to reveal the Father to Daniel. This is a specific and unique situation in scripture and history.
THE FATHER (SPIRIT) DWELT INSIDE THE BODY OF JESUS..JESUS SAID IN JOHN 14..WHY ARE YOU ASKING ME TO SHOW THE FATHER,THOSE WHO HAVE SEEN ME HAVE SEEN THE FATHER OR ATLEAST BELIEVE IN THE EVIDENCE OF THE MIRACLES,THAT THE FATHER IN ME AND I IN MY FATHER... JESUS SAID I DONT DO ANYTHING OF MY OWN BUT IT IS THE FATHER(SPIRIT) DWELLING WITHIN ME DOING HIS WORKS...
John 1:18 is not proper English. It is a mistranslation. It should be translated as no man has seen the Father EXCEPT the son has declared him. ... No man can see God the Father unless Christ first introduces the Father to the viewer.
Jesus Christ cannot contract Himself. Therefore Luke 21:27 which is a quote of Christ, indicates that John 1:18 which is not a complete sentence, but is incorrect language, and an incoherent sentence, must be a mistranslation. It is extremely unwise to take one single verse out of context from the rest of the entire Bible and use the one single verse for a premise of an important religious belief or doctrine. The Bible says Jacob saw God, Isaiah saw God, John the Revelator saw God. When Steven was being stoned he saw Jesus and the Father standing next to each other. So are you saying those parts of the Bible are false? Are you saying those parts of the Bible are mistranslations? Many people saw Christ after He was resurrected. Are you saying that is false? Christ told Mary to not touch Him after He came out of the tomb because He had not yet ascended to the Father. Apparently, He then later did ascend to the Father and came back because He later appeared to the apostles and they all touched His wounds. John 1:18 is incoherent, improper English? It is a mistranslation. Modern scholars say the correct translation is, "No man has seen the Father, except the Son has introduced Him." Meaning no man has seen God the Father unless the Father is introduced to the person by Christ. The Bible has many mistranslations which is apparent by many incoherent statements and the fact there are hundreds of obvious discrepancies and contradictions in the Bible which you can find by Google searching "contradictions in the Bible" If you do not agree that John 1:18 is a mistranslation and improper incoherence English and accept it literally as it is is then you have to reject the parts of the Bibble that says Jacob, Isaiah, John the Revelator and Steven saw God, and that the apostles and other disciples saw and even touched Jesus after He resurrected and apparent after He ascended to His Father briefly and came back. If you say Christ did not go to Heaven before the apostles touched and saw Him after He resurrected then you must reject the part of the Bible where Christ said to the thief on the cross, "Today you will be with me in paradise" , unless you say that paradise only refers to the spirit world not Heaven, in which case you would have to say there is a spirit world where good human spirits wait, called paradise, before they go to Heaven in which case the paradise Christ was referring to on the cross is not Heaven. Furthermore, even if John 1:18 is not a mistranslation, in which case the Bible would then have contradictions, John 1:18 is written in the PAST tense. It would not mean that no man can see God in the future. Otherwise, when Christ returns to the earth in His grand second coming to rule over the earth as King of Earth from the New Jerusalem during the Millennium, nobody will be able to see Him. No person would be able to see Him at any time when He returns. So, then there would be no sense and no rational reason for Christ to come to earth again if no one could see Him because He can reign remotely over the earth remotely from Heavenly just as well as He can from the New Jerusalem or from any other location on Earth. Christ does not need to come to earth to destroy the wicked just as He did not come to earth during the flood in the days of Noah. So, if no man on earth can see God in the future then Christ does not need to come to earth again. If no man can see God then Revelations 1:7 is false. Quote, "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and EVERY EYE SHALLL SEE, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen." John 1:18 would also contradict Christ statement in Luke 21: 27 " And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory."
I don't know if you watched the video all the way through, but the point being made is that God was seen throughout the scriptures. John's point is that the Son was seen in the Old Testament theophanies.
@@AChristianGuy That is an opinion. The verse in John 1:18 does not say anything or imply anything about God being seen through scriptures, or being seen conceptually. It is a literal physical seeing as in a vision. Modern scholars show the translation as missing the word "except".
What most people are not understanding about this chapter and verse and any other verses in the bible is the proper interpretation in it right context. Why could only Jesus Christ see God The Father, is that he is of the substance of the Father, so that in his very nature he is God. They the same in nature, and spirit, and heart, and character. Jesus Christ came out of the Fathers bosom for real, literally. Again i say, only Jesus have seen God the Father, because he came from him.
I read comments and it makes me laugh out loud. You all need to begin reading YOUR bible from genesis. Not from New Testament guys. chapters from Old Testament one by one.. and also pray to God and speak to Holy Spirit to give you understanding . tell Jesus to open your understanding.
In sum, John is saying no man has seen the Father, rather that all of the references to God being seen in the Old Testament are of the Son prior to His incarnation.
@@gontse1386 Jesus Christ cannot contract Himself. Therefore Luke 21:27 which is a quote of Christ, indicates that John 1:18 which is not a complete sentence, but is incorrect language, and an incoherent sentence, must be a mistranslation. It is extremely unwise to take one single verse out of context from the rest of the entire Bible and use the one single verse for a premise of an important religious belief or doctrine. The Bible says Jacob saw God, Isaiah saw God, John the Revelator saw God. When Steven was being stoned he saw Jesus and the Father standing next to each other. So are you saying those parts of the Bible are false? Are you saying those parts of the Bible are mistranslations? Many people saw Christ after He was resurrected. Are you saying that is false? Christ told Mary to not touch Him after He came out of the tomb because He had not yet ascended to the Father. Apparently, He then later did ascend to the Father and came back because He later appeared to the apostles and they all touched His wounds. John 1:18 is incoherent, improper English? It is a mistranslation. Modern scholars say the correct translation is, "No man has seen the Father, except the Son has introduced Him." Meaning no man has seen God the Father unless the Father is introduced to the person by Christ. The Bible has many mistranslations which is apparent by many incoherent statements and the fact there are hundreds of obvious discrepancies and contradictions in the Bible which you can find by Google searching "contradictions in the Bible" If you do not agree that John 1:18 is a mistranslation and improper incoherence English and accept it literally as it is is then you have to reject the parts of the Bibble that says Jacob, Isaiah, John the Revelator and Steven saw God, and that the apostles and other disciples saw and even touched Jesus after He resurrected and apparent after He ascended to His Father briefly and came back. If you say Christ did not go to Heaven before the apostles touched and saw Him after He resurrected then you must reject the part of the Bible where Christ said to the thief on the cross, "Today you will be with me in paradise" , unless you say that paradise only refers to the spirit world not Heaven, in which case you would have to say there is a spirit world where good human spirits wait, called paradise, before they go to Heaven in which case the paradise Christ was referring to on the cross is not Heaven. Furthermore, even if John 1:18 is not a mistranslation, in which case the Bible would then have contradictions, John 1:18 is written in the PAST tense. It would not mean that no man can see God in the future. Otherwise, when Christ returns to the earth in His grand second coming to rule over the earth as King of Earth from the New Jerusalem during the Millennium, nobody will be able to see Him. No person would be able to see Him at any time when He returns. So, then there would be no sense and no rational reason for Christ to come to earth again if no one could see Him because He can reign remotely over the earth remotely from Heavenly just as well as He can from the New Jerusalem or from any other location on Earth. Christ does not need to come to earth to destroy the wicked just as He did not come to earth during the flood in the days of Noah. So, if no man on earth can see God in the future then Christ does not need to come to earth again. If no man can see God then Revelations 1:7 is false. Quote, "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and EVERY EYE SHALLL SEE, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen." John 1:18 would also contradict Christ statement in Luke 21: 27 " And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory."
I found myself disagreeing with this from the start. It seemed to me the video maker was trying to make the verse say something different from what it clearly said, thus implying that the Bible is full of contradictions, even on who God is. Here are some of my objections. 1. The video is designed to uphold the doctrine of the Trinity against its critics. But how does this verse -or indeed any verse mentioned in the video - support a triune God when no verse talks of three? 2. Why is the religio - historical context passed over? There is no mention of how Jews saw God. Did they see God as trinitarian or unitarian? There was no discussion of how Jewish scripture uses the word 'God' in a much broader way : divine beings (angels); Hebrew Kings; Judges ; Moses - they are all called 'God/god' in the Bible. Likewise, there is no discussion of the hellenistic views. Again, divine beings are called 'gods' . Jesus, raised from the dead and seated at the right hand of God in heaven as the Son of God, would be called a god. But in both the Jewish and hellenistic context, calling someone 'god'does not equate them with the LORD God (YHWH) of Israel. 3. Next we move into the section to show John is mistaken when he claims that no man has seen God-later to be redefined -. The idea that no man has seen God was well known and with a somewhat literalist approach, our video maker highlights a few verses that superficially seem to suggest that some saw God. However, by digging a little deeper, we quickly see that people seeing God in vision is not the same as seeing God. God is not really an old guy that sits on a throne in the sky and all exegetes know this - except our video maker. Seeing God can mean understanding. And the Law of agency explains all of these verses. God carries out his tasks by means of angelic beings who represent God. 4 Ignoring the Law of agency, our video maker claims that Jesus was the God Abraham interacted with and that unlike Abraham, the Jews were trying to kill him. Really ? Is he suggesting that Abraham could have killed God? Can God die ? Jesus is fully God, right? But wait a minute , an immortal God cannot die. Yet, the NT is very clear that Jesus died. Of course, we now have to invent another two natures doctrine to get out of this one - but I digress no further. The famous statement "Before Abraham was I am" can be explained as a claim of pre-existence ( many believe that the Son pre-existed before he came to eareth, but that does not mean he is God Almighty or part of a trinity). However, some translations render this passage "I have been". Indeed, many Trinitarian scholars claim that the passage is simply a messianic claim and not a claim to be YHWH. But our video maker ignores all perfectly reasonable explanations infavour of his preconceived idea. Finally, we get to his explanation of John's prologue. We get the usual slight of hand where 'God'becomes the Father. The video maker rightly points out that the Greek shows that the final phrase "the Word was (no definite article) God is to be understood as qualitative i.e. 'divine'. Indeed, this is how some translations render the verse . He understands that the phrase : "the word was God" as explained by many runs into all kinds of theological difficulties: The word (pre-existing Son cannot be the Father(heretical modalism) nor can the word be the triune God. Therefore, the word can only be 'divine'. However, many Christians view Jesus as the divine Son of God, but that does not equate him with YHWH nor does it prove a Trinity. Indeed, no Trinity is suggested in this passage at all as only the Word and God (or the Fathert) are mentioned. But for me, the biggest failing in this entire explanation is the elephant in the room : we have the begotten god as oppoosed to the unbegotten God . We have two ! One who is unbegotten and never seen and one who is begotten and seen by all. A God who is begotten is clearly not God Almighty. The verse actually posed no problem for the first Christians who viewed Jesus as the Messiah , the Son of God. They had no problem of seeing him with God (YHWH) or as being 'divine'. But they did not view him as YHWH. Likkewise, from the early second century, some Aplologists used this passage to show that Jesus 'pre-existed' as the divine Son. But they viewed the Son as a lesser or secondary God. This was not a problem for them either, as the doctrine of the trinity had not yet beed adopted and would not fully be adopted in its present form until the fourth century.. Our video maker showed how the word was divine and not 'God'. Congratulations.
If your interpretation is correct, you are still left with explaining the μονογενὴς Θεὸς of verse 18 - which means the one-of-a-kind God - in the bosom of the Father. The consequence of denying the true divinity of the Son, but asserting that he has some other kind of divinity, is that you are left in polytheism. John would not call the Word truly divine without reference to anything else than the quality of divinity as found in the Father. Whatever the Father is by His nature (i.e. truly God), the Son also is by His nature (i.e. truly God). Don't forget that Jesus is both God & man. God is not susceptible to death, but man is. (For the record, I never said God was an old guy in the sky. Don't put words in my mouth; it's dishonest and sinful.) I expect this has the potential to go into a prolonged comment war - unless you make a video, I'll save any further response.
@@AChristianGuy : Which of my points do you disagree with? What if I am correct? In this context monogenes means only-begotten. So we have a begotten god and an unbegotten God.
The Father, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are all YHWH by nature. To state the inverse, the one YHWH is revealed in the three Persons of Father, Son & Spirit.
I’ve haven’t been reading the Old Testament because the god of the Old Testament did a lot of killing of children and even babies and I’m like no way that’s my Heavenly Father. In the New Testament the Heavenly Father and his Son Jesus don’t kill especially babies. Jesus had to die to go get the power of death from the one who owned it which was satan. So how did the god of the Old Testament kill all those people. In the New Testament death is an enemy of the true God. That means The Heavenly Father and His Son Jesus don’t even own death. This means that the god of the Old Testament killing all those people and sending lying spirits is not the true God (Jesus Father). It also doesn’t make sense when people say well that’s how God was back in the Old Testament he is a Justice God. Well Jesus is the same yesterday, today, and forever. That means the Father is the same yesterday, today, and forever. Jesus is an exact replica of his Father. They aren’t divided. Jesus says if you seen me you seen the Father. Anything the Father does the Son of man does. Another thing Jesus tells you know one has never seen the Father face or form nor never heard his voice. So who was Moses and the people in the Old Testament talking too. The Old Testament LORD God Yahweh has to be the evil one.
The part of God we see is Jesus. He showed in the Old Testament, incarnated in the New. Born of Mary, related with disciples. Appeared to women. Thomas doubted. Appeared on the road to Emmaus. Ascended to Heaven. When God interacts with us now in the present day, it is Jesus Who does. Oh yes He does!! OK, at Pentecost, God sent His Spirit. Not bothered, anything and everything from God is more than welcome! God knows where I live. Bring it on!!
I don’t understand how people would say that Jesus isn’t God because of verse 18. John was just telling everyone a few lines earlier that the Word was God and also the Word became flesh. It would be obvious that someone has “seen.”
Jesus is, was, the image of the invisible God. Who became man. God is Spirit. The bible also says we shall see Him as He is for we shall be like Him. In His kingdom. Flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom.
Stephen saw Father God & Jesus. Just before dying. What other Bible verses do you know...
Like Jesus walking on the water was also a representation of The Holy Spirit in the beginning hovering over the surface of the waters...
God bless
JESUS IS Alive!!!
⛪️🏃♂️💕🌍💨
Amen in jesus mighty name
I love your teaching style. Thanks for all the hard work 🙏🏼❤️
Had to listen twice; once again great teaching.
Thank you!
But did you notice how he 'proved ; that the word was 'divine' and not the person of God. The Son of God is 'divine; but is not 'God' or the Father. This argues against the doctrine he intends to support.
@Gerry Quinn - That misses the whole point. True divinity only resides in the nature of God. If something is created, it cannot be divine. Angels are not divine. Neither is Satan or any other spiritual power. Only God is divine. To call the Word, "divine," is to call Him God.
@@AChristianGuy : May I humbly suggest that you look up a dictionary. In biblical times angels were viewed as divine beings. . The Son of God can be viewed as divine by the fact that he is the Son of God. The language of 'nature' or essence is not the language of scripture but the language of neo-platonism from which later Church doctrine evolved.
Bravo, very nice channel I pray you will grow in views, subscriptions, and overall influence.
These men of God saw God in the Dream and hear the voice of God but they never saw God face to face
The God of the Old Testament is the Son Himself, who ruled from the first creation until He became flesh. God is not quantified in terms of how many there are, but rather in terms of His infinite ONE, which are equal to the Father. Of course, in the hierarchy, the Father is above the Son. John 1:18 says that no one has ever seen God because of His glory. When Moses asked to see God's glory (Exodus 33:18), God offered to show him His back. This is because God's glory is His face, and no one can see His face and live (Exodus 33:20). The confrontation of "face to face" is somewhat of a pre-incarnate Christ. Just like Jacob in Genesis 32:30, who called the place Peniel, saying, "It is because I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared," and Moses in Deuteronomy 34:10, who was the only prophet in Israel whom the LORD knew face to face. But the manifestation of the flesh, The Son radiates God’s own glory and expresses the very character of God, ................."
Hahahahaha Tell this to the prophets and Mary
@@user-cg2tw8pw7j and tell it too to your fake messiah .
@user-cg2tw8pw7j Jesus while on earth was in human form not in His Glory
@@user-cg2tw8pw7jwe don’t have to, they tell us u dumbazz. Whatever views you have, whatever hood u claim has failed for 2000 years to make them known to the masses. God is Triune. “We have seen God”- Judges 13;18-23
Can u put this in simpler terms
Very nice video. This channel deserves more attention.
Thank you for the feedback
Always appreciate your videos! Well done.
Thank you!
John really know who is God❤️.
forreal tho!
thank you so much for this video and analysis of the word
Thank you for your feedback!
Well done sir. Thanks for the explanation.
The Father has been seen. Daniel 7:13-14. The word seen in John 1:18 is referring to seeing with the mind's eye, i.e. to know, that's why John says "but the only begotten God has made him *known"*
Consider Matthew 11:27 and Luke 10:22 in light of the Son of Man's presence before the Ancient of Days. Daniel 7 is a special instance in which both personages are interacting simultaneously.
@@AChristianGuy "no one *knows* the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to *reveal* him."
It's just paraphrasing John 1:18 and again talks about knowing God and the Son is the one who makes him known.
Daniel 7, special case or not, the Father is seen by Daniel in a vision. If you reject that Daniel saw the Father because it's a vision then you would have to reject that Paul said Jesus appeared to him in 1 Cor 15:8.
@@AChristianGuy I'll admit, John 1:18 could be talking about physically seeing God "as he is" because he exists outside time and space. That's because Jesus is also called the one whom no man has seen in 1 Tim 6:16.
But based on context with how John contrasts the first part of John 1:18 with "knowing" God in the second part (lit. "exegeting") and with God having been seen physically and in visions in the OT it's more likely John meant seeing with the mind's eye, in my opinion.
Here's a copy paste from JW who _unintentionally_ provided some good verses to support this view.
JW Quote:
Fact: The Greek words in the Bible for “eye” and “seeing” are sometimes used in the sense of discerning or perceiving rather than referring to literal sight. * (Matthew 13:15; Luke 19:42; Romans 15:21; Ephesians 1:18)
I wasn't attempting to say that Daniel didn't see the Father. My point was that, given that the Son is present also in His vision, it is the Son's prerogative & ability to have shown Daniel the Father - something that no other OT prophet experienced. That's what I meant when I referred to it as a, "special instance." I don't disagree with you that this is a vision (i.e. mind's eye). With respect to John, the point that he expands upon though is seeing of any kind (literally or in vision) - Jesus' testimony of Abraham in Ch.8 in light of Gen.18 substantiates this. Gen. 18 was not in vision; it was very much literal seeing and interaction.
@@AChristianGuy do you believe that the Angel of the Lord was Jesus in the OT?
Watch - Why did Jesus say, "I can do nothing on My own initiative?": ruclips.net/video/aGe5O1jg2_M/видео.html
*Note* - The verse citation from 4:17-5:03 should say (John 8:39-40), not (John 8:56).
The spoken word is not me, but from my mouth. Jesus and the Father are in complete unity of mind and spirit. They have separate wills. This is seen in the Garden when Christ asks for the cup to pass away from him, but even then, his will be done. This proves that Jesus has his own will that is separate from the father. Jesus, his title, is the literal word of God. That is his rank... No one comes to the father but by following the command of the spoken word. You follow the word by following the spoken teachings of Christ. Love one another, forgiveness of others, etc.
As far as no man seeing the father, this is literal. The father is an always has been in heaven... There is a reason why Jesus tells his disciples that they "know not what spirit you are of" when they want to call down fire from heaven like the Prophets of Yahweh. Yehweh is the Usurper, the one who was cast down to earth and awaiting judgement. Yahweh commands all follow him and exalt him as the one and only God. He is called, "the Ruler of this Earth", which is why the Devil tempts Jesus with the Kingdoms of the Earth... Because he literally owns the Earth. Yahweh is the God of this World who established laws on this World. Jesus sets us free from all this, uniting us with the one true God, who is in heaven... Who no man has ever seen.
I like this explanation.. i dont understand why people find it so hard to understand that Jesus was begotton from the Father, Jesus is his literal son!
this is great
Nice review!
Awesome
Ok Thanks Now I understand
You cannot see the Father on Earth.
But you can see the Son.
Jesus is the image of the invisible Father in him....
What is GOD? Who is like GOD? How can we be like GOD, if no man knows not his own Father?
The Word Became Flesh (John 1:1-14)
John : 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.
Joh 5:17 But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.
Jesus Is Equal with God
Joh 5:18 Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath,
but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.
The Authority of the Son
Joh 5:19 Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do:
for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
Joh 5:20 For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel.
Joh 5:21 For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.
Joh 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
Philippians 2: 5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
Colossians 1:15-20 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and
that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:
And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead;
that in all things he might have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; And, having made peace through the blood of his cross,
by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.
The Rider on a White Horse Rev 19:11 And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True,
and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. Rev 19:12 His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written,
that no man knew, but he himself. Rev 19:13 And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
Here are the answers to your questions.
1. Jesus ignored the temptation from Satan. When Satan tempted him he just said “it is written” repeatedly. And this proves that he is God because he never fell for the temptation.
2. “No one has seen God” is referring to the father in the Trinity. Jesus was came down to earth as the son. And this doesn’t make him a separate god because he said that in John 10:30 that he and the father are one.
3. Jesus came down as a God in human form.
But I have a question for you. How did Jesus create a bird out of clay (5:110) when the Quran claims that only Allah can create life (6:2)?
This simple factor proves that Jesus Christ is God ✝️
You mentioned Exodus 33:11 where it's says Moses spoke to God face to face. However, Exodus 33:20 says no man can see God and live. Also, Galatians 3:19 says the law was transmitted through angels. Therefore, it may have seemed like Moses was speaking to God but he was speaking with an angel that God was speaking through. In short, John 1:18 should be taken exactly the way you read it.
I think the argument for skeptics would be that Jesus isn’t God because people have seen Jesus. So in your example someone would say if Jesus is God, how are people seeing Jesus and still living.
@acb9318 l am saying that Jesus isn't God. I am also saying that even when it seems God is speaking to someone directly in the Bible he's not. He's speaking through a representative which is close enough.
God also appeared as a cloud, fire etc. no one has seen god as his true "self" only what he shows himself as. God is beyond time and space. Perhaps something we can't fathom as a human. It also is curious to me in mark when John the Baptist baptized Jesus, the heavens opened up and the spirit came down Into him like a dove. Almost like Jesus was a vessel. The spirit also took Jesus through the 40 day test. Curious what someone's thought on that is? That's what it seems to me. He also prays to god by himself, which is curious if he is just god. Why would be pray to himself?
Is it possible Jesus had two natures: Fully God and fully man, since the foundation of the world up until he ascended into heaven (Acts 1) giving up his human nature? In Acts 8 Saul went blind when Jesus was in his presence because he gave up his flesh in Chapter 1. Jesus did not need his human nature after he atone for our sins and rising from the dead. Going back to John 1:18, could it be talking about Jesus only having one nature: fully God?
The Father has been seen. Daniel 7 he is the ancient of days. Rev 4 and 5 John sees the Father sitting on the throne, and Moses was talking to the father in exodus 23:20-23.
Jesus is the father who came down as his plans
Can you show us the Bibleverse confirming your Assertion? Why is Jesus called the Son then and why does he pray to his Heavenly Father, can you explain that to me?
Theophany Christophany God manifestation in visible form in the old testament.
Jesus also said that "I and the Father are one". And I've heard that anyone who saw God would die if only because of the likely difference between the seer and the awesome beauty of God. In other words, die of sorrow. Something like that.
To have everlasting life you absolutely must trust in the person and finished work of Christ alone for salvation.
The person is Jesus Christ (Lord God Almighty) clothed in unsinful humanity.
The work is His perfect life, shed blood, physical death, burial, and physical ressurection from the dead.
This means that saving repentance is realizing that you are a sinner deserving of God's just punishment in Hell and turn (repent) from whatever you trusted in before, if indeed you trusted in anything; to trusting in the person and finished work of Christ alone for salvation.
I thought the video showed that Jesus is not the LORD God Almighty, which is a designation given only to YHWH or the 'Father.'
@@gerryquinn5578 God is one Spirit being.
God is one Spirit being eternally present as three distinct centers of consciousness within God (hence the Godhead of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit). One being, one essence, yet three distinct persons.
As persons each is definitely not either of the other two.
However, as one Spirit being we can definitely say that the Father is the Son is the Holy Spirit.
Jesus name means Jehovah saviour or Yahweh saves.
In Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily.
The verse in John 1:18 does not say anything or imply anything about God being seen through scriptures, or being seen conceptually. It is a literal physical seeing as in a vision. Modern scholars show the translation as missing the word "except"
Yes - this video is saying that God was actually seen, not conceptually seen.
Brother also explain 1Tim 6:16
Father was seen in Daniel 7 though as the ancient of days. We know it’s the father as the son of man approached him. I believe this is talking about the divinity of the God head.
Correct. The unique thing about that situation is the presence of the pre-incarnate Son, who can reveal the Father to whom He wishes (cf. Matt 11:27; Luke 10:22)
@@AChristianGuy but the father was seen that’s the point so when you say no one has seen the father it’s kinda not entirely correct. Idk what exactly the churches position is but I believe it’s about the divine nature which we aren’t allowed to make icons of
John's point in 1:18 is that no one has seen the Father without the Son revealing the Father to them. In Daniel's vision, the Son is present in His pre-incarnate state as He stands before the Father. Thus, He is able to reveal the Father to Daniel. This is a specific and unique situation in scripture and history.
THE FATHER (SPIRIT) DWELT INSIDE THE BODY OF JESUS..JESUS SAID IN JOHN 14..WHY ARE YOU ASKING ME TO SHOW THE FATHER,THOSE WHO HAVE SEEN ME HAVE SEEN THE FATHER OR ATLEAST BELIEVE IN THE EVIDENCE OF THE MIRACLES,THAT THE FATHER IN ME AND I IN MY FATHER...
JESUS SAID I DONT DO ANYTHING OF MY OWN BUT IT IS THE FATHER(SPIRIT) DWELLING WITHIN ME DOING HIS WORKS...
Which form of god was seen in the verse genesis 32 30
Son of God? 🤔 good question?
@@treyconnor1859 how do we know
Very good!
✝
John 1:18 is not proper English. It is a mistranslation. It should be translated as no man has seen the Father EXCEPT the son has declared him. ...
No man can see God the Father unless Christ first introduces the Father to the viewer.
Jesus Christ cannot contract Himself. Therefore Luke 21:27 which is a quote of Christ, indicates that John 1:18 which is not a complete sentence, but is incorrect language, and an incoherent sentence, must be a mistranslation. It is extremely unwise to take one single verse out of context from the rest of the entire Bible and use the one single verse for a premise of an important religious belief or doctrine. The Bible says Jacob saw God, Isaiah saw God, John the Revelator saw God. When Steven was being stoned he saw Jesus and the Father standing next to each other. So are you saying those parts of the Bible are false? Are you saying those parts of the Bible are mistranslations? Many people saw Christ after He was resurrected. Are you saying that is false? Christ told Mary to not touch Him after He came out of the tomb because He had not yet ascended to the Father. Apparently, He then later did ascend to the Father and came back because He later appeared to the apostles and they all touched His wounds. John 1:18 is incoherent, improper English? It is a mistranslation. Modern scholars say the correct translation is, "No man has seen the Father, except the Son has introduced Him." Meaning no man has seen God the Father unless the Father is introduced to the person by Christ. The Bible has many mistranslations which is apparent by many incoherent statements and the fact there are hundreds of obvious discrepancies and contradictions in the Bible which you can find by Google searching "contradictions in the Bible" If you do not agree that John 1:18 is a mistranslation and improper incoherence English and accept it literally as it is is then you have to reject the parts of the Bibble that says Jacob, Isaiah, John the Revelator and Steven saw God, and that the apostles and other disciples saw and even touched Jesus after He resurrected and apparent after He ascended to His Father briefly and came back. If you say Christ did not go to Heaven before the apostles touched and saw Him after He resurrected then you must reject the part of the Bible where Christ said to the thief on the cross, "Today you will be with me in paradise" , unless you say that paradise only refers to the spirit world not Heaven, in which case you would have to say there is a spirit world where good human spirits wait, called paradise, before they go to Heaven in which case the paradise Christ was referring to on the cross is not Heaven. Furthermore, even if John 1:18 is not a mistranslation, in which case the Bible would then have contradictions, John 1:18 is written in the PAST tense. It would not mean that no man can see God in the future. Otherwise, when Christ returns to the earth in His grand second coming to rule over the earth as King of Earth from the New Jerusalem during the Millennium, nobody will be able to see Him. No person would be able to see Him at any time when He returns. So, then there would be no sense and no rational reason for Christ to come to earth again if no one could see Him because He can reign remotely over the earth remotely from Heavenly just as well as He can from the New Jerusalem or from any other location on Earth. Christ does not need to come to earth to destroy the wicked just as He did not come to earth during the flood in the days of Noah. So, if no man on earth can see God in the future then Christ does not need to come to earth again. If no man can see God then Revelations 1:7 is false. Quote, "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and EVERY EYE SHALLL SEE, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen." John 1:18 would also contradict Christ statement in Luke 21: 27 " And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory."
I don't know if you watched the video all the way through, but the point being made is that God was seen throughout the scriptures. John's point is that the Son was seen in the Old Testament theophanies.
@@AChristianGuy That is an opinion. The verse in John 1:18 does not say anything or imply anything about God being seen through scriptures, or being seen conceptually. It is a literal physical seeing as in a vision. Modern scholars show the translation as missing the word "except".
Yes - this video is saying that was God actually seen, not conceptually seen.
What most people are not understanding about this chapter and verse and any other verses in the bible is the proper interpretation in it right context. Why could only Jesus Christ see God The Father, is that he is of the substance of the Father, so that in his very nature he is God. They the same in nature, and spirit, and heart, and character. Jesus Christ came out of the Fathers bosom for real, literally. Again i say, only Jesus have seen God the Father, because he came from him.
I read comments and it makes me laugh out loud. You all need to begin reading YOUR bible from genesis. Not from New Testament guys. chapters from Old Testament one by one.. and also pray to God and speak to Holy Spirit to give you understanding . tell Jesus to open your understanding.
I don’t get this video at all, what am I supposed to say when ppl use this line to say the Bible contradicts itself
In sum, John is saying no man has seen the Father, rather that all of the references to God being seen in the Old Testament are of the Son prior to His incarnation.
@@AChristianGuy”he who has seen me has seen the father” what does this mean then, I’m confused 🫤
Jacob also saw God face to face.
Jesus said no man has seen or heard God though
@@gontse1386 Jesus Christ cannot contract Himself. Therefore Luke 21:27 which is a quote of Christ, indicates that John 1:18 which is not a complete sentence, but is incorrect language, and an incoherent sentence, must be a mistranslation. It is extremely unwise to take one single verse out of context from the rest of the entire Bible and use the one single verse for a premise of an important religious belief or doctrine. The Bible says Jacob saw God, Isaiah saw God, John the Revelator saw God. When Steven was being stoned he saw Jesus and the Father standing next to each other. So are you saying those parts of the Bible are false? Are you saying those parts of the Bible are mistranslations? Many people saw Christ after He was resurrected. Are you saying that is false? Christ told Mary to not touch Him after He came out of the tomb because He had not yet ascended to the Father. Apparently, He then later did ascend to the Father and came back because He later appeared to the apostles and they all touched His wounds. John 1:18 is incoherent, improper English? It is a mistranslation. Modern scholars say the correct translation is, "No man has seen the Father, except the Son has introduced Him." Meaning no man has seen God the Father unless the Father is introduced to the person by Christ. The Bible has many mistranslations which is apparent by many incoherent statements and the fact there are hundreds of obvious discrepancies and contradictions in the Bible which you can find by Google searching "contradictions in the Bible" If you do not agree that John 1:18 is a mistranslation and improper incoherence English and accept it literally as it is is then you have to reject the parts of the Bibble that says Jacob, Isaiah, John the Revelator and Steven saw God, and that the apostles and other disciples saw and even touched Jesus after He resurrected and apparent after He ascended to His Father briefly and came back. If you say Christ did not go to Heaven before the apostles touched and saw Him after He resurrected then you must reject the part of the Bible where Christ said to the thief on the cross, "Today you will be with me in paradise" , unless you say that paradise only refers to the spirit world not Heaven, in which case you would have to say there is a spirit world where good human spirits wait, called paradise, before they go to Heaven in which case the paradise Christ was referring to on the cross is not Heaven. Furthermore, even if John 1:18 is not a mistranslation, in which case the Bible would then have contradictions, John 1:18 is written in the PAST tense. It would not mean that no man can see God in the future. Otherwise, when Christ returns to the earth in His grand second coming to rule over the earth as King of Earth from the New Jerusalem during the Millennium, nobody will be able to see Him. No person would be able to see Him at any time when He returns. So, then there would be no sense and no rational reason for Christ to come to earth again if no one could see Him because He can reign remotely over the earth remotely from Heavenly just as well as He can from the New Jerusalem or from any other location on Earth. Christ does not need to come to earth to destroy the wicked just as He did not come to earth during the flood in the days of Noah. So, if no man on earth can see God in the future then Christ does not need to come to earth again. If no man can see God then Revelations 1:7 is false. Quote, "Behold, he cometh with clouds; and EVERY EYE SHALLL SEE, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen." John 1:18 would also contradict Christ statement in Luke 21: 27 " And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory."
I found myself disagreeing with this from the start. It seemed to me the video maker was trying to make the verse say something different from what it clearly said, thus implying that the Bible is full of contradictions, even on who God is. Here are some of my objections.
1. The video is designed to uphold the doctrine of the Trinity against its critics. But how does this verse -or indeed any verse mentioned in the video - support a triune God when no verse talks of three?
2. Why is the religio - historical context passed over? There is no mention of how Jews saw God. Did they see God as trinitarian or unitarian? There was no discussion of how Jewish scripture uses the word 'God' in a much broader way : divine beings (angels); Hebrew Kings; Judges ; Moses - they are all called 'God/god' in the Bible. Likewise, there is no discussion of the hellenistic views. Again, divine beings are called 'gods' . Jesus, raised from the dead and seated at the right hand of God in heaven as the Son of God, would be called a god. But in both the Jewish and hellenistic context, calling someone 'god'does not equate them with the LORD God (YHWH) of Israel.
3. Next we move into the section to show John is mistaken when he claims that no man has seen God-later to be redefined -. The idea that no man has seen God was well known and with a somewhat literalist approach, our video maker highlights a few verses that superficially seem to suggest that some saw God. However, by digging a little deeper, we quickly see that people seeing God in vision is not the same as seeing God. God is not really an old guy that sits on a throne in the sky and all exegetes know this - except our video maker. Seeing God can mean understanding. And the Law of agency explains all of these verses. God carries out his tasks by means of angelic beings who represent God.
4 Ignoring the Law of agency, our video maker claims that Jesus was the God Abraham interacted with and that unlike Abraham, the Jews were trying to kill him. Really ? Is he suggesting that Abraham could have killed God? Can God die ? Jesus is fully God, right? But wait a minute , an immortal God cannot die. Yet, the NT is very clear that Jesus died. Of course, we now have to invent another two natures doctrine to get out of this one - but I digress no further. The famous statement "Before Abraham was I am" can be explained as a claim of pre-existence ( many believe that the Son pre-existed before he came to eareth, but that does not mean he is God Almighty or part of a trinity). However, some translations render this passage "I have been". Indeed, many Trinitarian scholars claim that the passage is simply a messianic claim and not a claim to be YHWH. But our video maker ignores all perfectly reasonable explanations infavour of his preconceived idea.
Finally, we get to his explanation of John's prologue. We get the usual slight of hand where 'God'becomes the Father. The video maker rightly points out that the Greek shows that the final phrase "the Word was (no definite article) God is to be understood as qualitative i.e. 'divine'. Indeed, this is how some translations render the verse . He understands that the phrase : "the word was God" as explained by many runs into all kinds of theological difficulties: The word (pre-existing Son cannot be the Father(heretical modalism) nor can the word be the triune God. Therefore, the word can only be 'divine'. However, many Christians view Jesus as the divine Son of God, but that does not equate him with YHWH nor does it prove a Trinity. Indeed, no Trinity is suggested in this passage at all as only the Word and God (or the Fathert) are mentioned. But for me, the biggest failing in this entire explanation is the elephant in the room : we have the begotten god as oppoosed to the unbegotten God . We have
two ! One who is unbegotten and never seen and one who is begotten and seen by all. A God who is begotten is clearly not God Almighty. The verse actually posed no problem for the first Christians who viewed Jesus as the Messiah , the Son of God. They had no problem of seeing him with God (YHWH) or as being 'divine'. But they did not view him as YHWH. Likkewise, from the early second century, some Aplologists used this passage to show that Jesus 'pre-existed' as the divine Son. But they viewed the Son as a lesser or secondary God. This was not a problem for them either, as the doctrine of the trinity had not yet beed adopted and would not fully be adopted in its present form until the fourth century.. Our video maker showed how the word was divine and not 'God'. Congratulations.
If your interpretation is correct, you are still left with explaining the μονογενὴς Θεὸς of verse 18 - which means the one-of-a-kind God - in the bosom of the Father. The consequence of denying the true divinity of the Son, but asserting that he has some other kind of divinity, is that you are left in polytheism. John would not call the Word truly divine without reference to anything else than the quality of divinity as found in the Father. Whatever the Father is by His nature (i.e. truly God), the Son also is by His nature (i.e. truly God). Don't forget that Jesus is both God & man. God is not susceptible to death, but man is. (For the record, I never said God was an old guy in the sky. Don't put words in my mouth; it's dishonest and sinful.)
I expect this has the potential to go into a prolonged comment war - unless you make a video, I'll save any further response.
@@AChristianGuy : Which of my points do you disagree with? What if I am correct?
In this context monogenes means only-begotten. So we have a begotten god and an unbegotten God.
I wish i could like this comment 100 times
Jesus was God's Divine son!!!😎
😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😂
Where u got this joke
🤷 p̾r̾o̾m̾o̾s̾m̾
So yaweh is jesus?
The Father, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are all YHWH by nature. To state the inverse, the one YHWH is revealed in the three Persons of Father, Son & Spirit.
I’ve haven’t been reading the Old Testament because the god of the Old Testament did a lot of killing of children and even babies and I’m like no way that’s my Heavenly Father. In the New Testament the Heavenly Father and his Son Jesus don’t kill especially babies. Jesus had to die to go get the power of death from the one who owned it which was satan. So how did the god of the Old Testament kill all those people. In the New Testament death is an enemy of the true God. That means The Heavenly Father and His Son Jesus don’t even own death. This means that the god of the Old Testament killing all those people and sending lying spirits is not the true God (Jesus Father). It also doesn’t make sense when people say well that’s how God was back in the Old Testament he is a Justice God. Well Jesus is the same yesterday, today, and forever. That means the Father is the same yesterday, today, and forever. Jesus is an exact replica of his Father. They aren’t divided. Jesus says if you seen me you seen the Father. Anything the Father does the Son of man does. Another thing Jesus tells you know one has never seen the Father face or form nor never heard his voice. So who was Moses and the people in the Old Testament talking too. The Old Testament LORD God Yahweh has to be the evil one.
@@AChristianGuy😂😂😂😂😂this so falls in Genesis u see God but in jhon u can't 😂😂😂😂😂 true falls and currupted
The part of God we see is Jesus. He showed in the Old Testament, incarnated in the New. Born of Mary, related with disciples. Appeared to women. Thomas doubted. Appeared on the road to Emmaus. Ascended to Heaven.
When God interacts with us now in the present day, it is Jesus Who does. Oh yes He does!!
OK, at Pentecost, God sent His Spirit. Not bothered, anything and everything from God is more than welcome!
God knows where I live. Bring it on!!