fluctuations and the Langevin equation

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  • Опубликовано: 12 ноя 2024

Комментарии • 17

  • @josthijssen6782
    @josthijssen6782  Год назад

    Thanks for your question. The formula as it is used here is correct. If you would instead of an integral use a sum over time intervals Δt, you would need to divide by Δt. Note that a delta-function of a time argument has a dimension of 1/time.

  • @ethanmullen4287
    @ethanmullen4287 Год назад

    Hi Jos, amazing video and thanks very much for the series you have up here on youtube! At ~17:00 you have that the correlation function for R(t) is q*delta(t1-t2). Should it not be (q / (Delta t)) *delta(t1-t2)?

  • @TheManuKelas
    @TheManuKelas 4 года назад +2

    Thank you for the lecture! A question: why does pi appear when you take the continuum limit in 11:51?

    • @josthijssen6782
      @josthijssen6782  4 года назад +1

      The factor 2pi is wrong. Thanks for pointing this out. The factor which you keep is q, so it doesn't matter for the sequel

  • @breakbeatpodcast
    @breakbeatpodcast 7 лет назад +1

    Thanks! Very useful lectures

  • @AnionicTenside
    @AnionicTenside 7 лет назад +1

    Amazing lectures! Is the general rule for the delta-function presented in 24:10 used correctly in the transformation of the given delta-function? Why aren´t the remaining arguments divided by 1-gamma*delta t in the result for P(v,t+delta t) (in 24:14)? Can you please explain me how to transform the delta-function to obain your result?

    • @emilio.logski
      @emilio.logski 5 лет назад +1

      I'm having trouble understanding the same step... Did you manage to figure it out, so you can help me?

    • @subinsahu3350
      @subinsahu3350 5 лет назад +1

      He used the first-order expansion: 1/(1-gamma*delta t)= (1+gamma*delta t), which is valid for small delta t.

    • @baharjafarizadeh9464
      @baharjafarizadeh9464 4 года назад

      @@subinsahu3350 yes it is obvious, but there are more terms of second order of (delta t)*2 which one of them belongs to the first term and he didnt use it! I dont know whats going on!

    • @roholazandie3515
      @roholazandie3515 Год назад

      @@baharjafarizadeh9464 If you use the delta formula you get (v-R*delta t)/(1-gamma* delta t) using the taylor series for 1/1-x=1+x you can write it down as (v-R*delta t)*(1+gamma* delta t) by ignoring the delta t*2 you get v+(gamma*v-R)*delta t which is the result in that step

  • @MayankSharma-ys7zr
    @MayankSharma-ys7zr 4 года назад

    Dear Jos ,
    Could you clear the step at 35:39 . When you took ensemble average , you let snuck inside d/dt . normally is not equal to d/dt . I am not able to follow the argument that why is one able to do it here.
    Thanks

    • @josthijssen6782
      @josthijssen6782  4 года назад +3

      Good point. The average of a quantity for a large number N of evolutions a can be written as = \sum_i a_i/N, where a_i is the realisation for a particular evolution (determined by what the random generator has spit out). A time derivative in front of that sum leads to d/dt = \sum_i \dot{a}_i/N. I hope this clarifies the point.

  • @luisbielmillan8467
    @luisbielmillan8467 Год назад

    Hello sir, thank you for this video. At 39:00 there is a mistake, in the step where you take the taylor series of the exponential you forget to multiply -1 by m/gamma (but then proceed as if you did, so the result holds)

    • @josthijssen6782
      @josthijssen6782  Год назад

      Thanks for your remark. The exponential is not expanded as t is large; it is neglected and only the term -1 survives in the parenthesis. Am I right or did I overlook something?

    • @luisbielmillan8467
      @luisbielmillan8467 Год назад

      @@josthijssen6782 I mean as t goes to 0. 38:30 aprox.

    • @josthijssen6782
      @josthijssen6782  Год назад

      I see, you're right. Thanks.

  • @ahmedgharieb5252
    @ahmedgharieb5252 3 года назад

    Hey i want to talk with you directly could I sir?