How do I do this? Calculus limit inf-inf form with L'Hopital's Rule! Reddit r/calculus

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  • Опубликовано: 21 сен 2024
  • Learn how to evaluate the limit of ln(1-cos(x))-ln(x^2) as x goes to infinity with L'Hospital's rule. We first need to combine the logarithms together and then work out the limit inside out. Subscribe for more calculus tutorials.
    This question is from Reddit r/calculus / psl6ysz9qo
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Комментарии • 19

  • @bprpcalculusbasics
    @bprpcalculusbasics  День назад

    Calculus 1, how do you evaluate these limits (not 0/0 form) Reddit r/homeworkhelp
    ruclips.net/video/tCzh__jf-u4/видео.html

  • @alex_ramjiawan
    @alex_ramjiawan День назад +7

    I'm aware of the inside-out changeability due to ln being a continuous function, but I never learned why that's the case.

    • @konradybcio
      @konradybcio День назад +9

      continuity itself means that the limit of a function at a point is equal to its value at that point, performing the switcheroo is applying that principle in reverse order: the value at a point is equal to the limit of the function at that point (because = goes both ways)

    • @alex_ramjiawan
      @alex_ramjiawan День назад +3

      @@konradybcio Thanks. Clears things up.

    • @nobodyspecial7895
      @nobodyspecial7895 День назад

      @@konradybcio When is it not the case that a point on a graph would be different to the limit of that same x value?

    • @konradybcio
      @konradybcio День назад

      @@nobodyspecial7895 when there's a discontinuity, the graph "teleports" at one point
      Take f(x) = x-1 for x < 5, x+1 for x ≥ 5
      The limit on the left side of 5 is equal to 4, and on the right side it's equal to 6, meaning the limit at 5 doesn't exist
      You can also look up Dirichlet function, you have f(1)=1, but the limit at 1 doesn't exist (easily proven with epsilon-delta as the values never get closer together)

    • @nobodyspecial7895
      @nobodyspecial7895 22 часа назад

      @@konradybcio Thanks for this answer, I'll have to look into it more.

  • @blueslime5855
    @blueslime5855 День назад +3

    1-cosx ~ x²/2 (Taylor series) therefore we have
    ln(x²/2)-ln(x²)=ln½, done

    • @ramennoodle9918
      @ramennoodle9918 День назад

      this is if using L’Hôpital wasn’t required?

    • @blueslime5855
      @blueslime5855 День назад +1

      ​@@ramennoodle9918 I don't think using l'Hôpital's is ever required, in fact it's usually recommended against unless you're learning it for the first time. So in this case, it turns out to be much simpler to use Taylor expansions.

  • @jackychanmaths
    @jackychanmaths 15 часов назад

    Since lim_(x->0) sin x / x cannot be solved by L' Hospital's rule, lim_(x->0) [(1 - cos x)/x^2] also cannot be solved by L' Hospital's rule since the derivative of cos x also depends on lim_(x->0) sin x / x.
    The correct way should be
    lim_(x->0) [(1 - cos x)/x^2]
    = lim_(x->0) {[2sin^2 (x/2)]/x^2}
    = 1/2* lim_(x->0) [sin (x/2) / (x/2)]^2
    = 1/2* { lim_(x->0) [sin (x/2) / (x/2)] }^2
    = 1/2 * 1^2
    = 1/2

  • @Brid727
    @Brid727 День назад

    for some reason i did the following:
    lim {ln(1-cosx) - ln(x^2)} as x->0
    lim [ln{(1-cosx)/x^2}] as x->0
    let L = lim [ln{(1-cosx)/x^2}] as x->0
    e^L = lim (1-cosx)/x^2 as x->0
    now to focus on the RHS
    lim {(1-cosx)/x^2} as x->0
    we get 0/0, so we use L'Hopital's rule
    after which, we get,
    lim (sinx/2x) as x->0
    =(1/2)*{lim (sinx/x) as x->0}
    the limit in the latter portion equals 1
    =1/2
    so e^L=1/2
    L=ln(1/2) = -ln(2)

  • @letsstudywitheda7140
    @letsstudywitheda7140 День назад +1

    Please put Turkish subtitles

  • @Mediterranean81
    @Mediterranean81 День назад

    The limit of 1-cos (x)/x^2 is a famous limit (=1/2)

    • @robertveith6383
      @robertveith6383 День назад

      No, your post is wrong. 1) You never mentioned the x going to *what limit.* 2) You are missing needed grouping symbols in the numerator: [1 - cos(x)]/x^2.