Homogenous differential equation by substitution

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  • Опубликовано: 23 янв 2025

Комментарии • 148

  • @Magic73805
    @Magic73805 7 лет назад +192

    Thank you Thank you Thank you Thank you So Very Much Sir..Love you to sir. Really you are great sir.

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  7 лет назад +31

      Ved Prakash my pleasure to help! Hope you like it!

    • @Magic73805
      @Magic73805 7 лет назад +24

      Why not! Sir.... You are my best teacher of mathematics. Really, I will be pray to god that god give you long life. 🤗🤗🤗👍👍👍👍👍👍🤝🤝🤝

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  7 лет назад +18

      Ved Prakash thank you thank you!

    • @thermie
      @thermie 7 лет назад +9

      thanks for giving us a nice problem to solve too!

    • @slutskystheorem15912
      @slutskystheorem15912 7 лет назад +9

      Ved Prakash bhai sach kahoon toh Yeh itna mushkil nahi hai

  • @vinaykumar2030
    @vinaykumar2030 4 года назад +1

    bruh its a silent night here, me alone in my room and that piano music all of a sudden at the scared the shit out of me. legit.

  • @hasanojan5570
    @hasanojan5570 3 года назад +1

    I love this guy so much

  • @KSEXZSujdDa
    @KSEXZSujdDa 7 лет назад +18

    Good explanatin sir.
    Keep doing this good work for Students.

  • @gasperbukovnik4290
    @gasperbukovnik4290 7 лет назад +4

    Hello. First of all great content on your channel, love it and keep it up! :) Secondly I am in the first year of my master degree, mechanical engineering. For some reason in all these years of maths classes we have never actually talked about Secant and Cosecant. I know about cos, sin, tan and cot. So my idea for next video: do a quick rundown for sec and cosec, basic definiton, usefulness etc? I guess I could google all that, but I just enjoy watching you explaining stuff since it's far more interesting. Good luck and thanks :)

  • @alwysrite
    @alwysrite 6 лет назад +2

    nice solution, nice piano at the end

  • @Roarshark12
    @Roarshark12 7 лет назад

    That solution was a work of art :-) You're so good at presenting these!

  • @burry218
    @burry218 7 лет назад

    Yes, this is a great video. Thank you! You should post more differential equation videos, too. You really do help with problem solving skills. Excellent.

  • @wristdisabledwriter2893
    @wristdisabledwriter2893 7 лет назад +2

    I never took differential equations but I’m so fascinated by these video. I took up to call 3 and linear algebra but de isn’t required for my major

    • @pommop4453
      @pommop4453 2 года назад

      I did it in my ninth grade.

  • @ryanchatterjee
    @ryanchatterjee 7 лет назад +1

    You could also get y=x*arctan(1/(ln(abs(x))+c))

    • @yoyoezzijr
      @yoyoezzijr 2 года назад

      And y = x*arccot(ln|x| + C)

  • @vonneumann3592
    @vonneumann3592 7 лет назад +5

    Sir please make videos on Olympiad problems

  • @alanagnew3451
    @alanagnew3451 7 лет назад +26

    The video’s thumbnail forgot the x next to the sin^2. Missing an x there.

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  7 лет назад +2

      Alan Agnew ah!! Thanks for pointing that out

    • @ranitchatterjee5552
      @ranitchatterjee5552 7 лет назад +1

      Alan Agnew yes.... But it was solvable too

    • @glydon-w2w522
      @glydon-w2w522 7 лет назад

      Ranit Chatterjee how do me that

    • @ranitchatterjee5552
      @ranitchatterjee5552 7 лет назад

      Maity tell me how I show you....!

    • @glydon-w2w522
      @glydon-w2w522 7 лет назад

      Ranit Chatterjee just right it down ... Here in comment section ...
      If you think it's not possible then left

  • @itamarrosen7911
    @itamarrosen7911 7 лет назад +6

    Hey. Can you do a proof that the limit as n goes to infinity of tan(x/n) is equal to x/n?

    • @jujumw5918
      @jujumw5918 7 лет назад +4

      If you know the limited development, this is quite easy:
      as you know tan (X) = sin(X)/cos(X)
      so we are looking for the limit as n goes to infinity of sin(x/n) / cos(x/n)
      so the limited development of sin (X) when X goes to 0 is sin(X) = X + eps(X) where eps is a function that goes to 0.
      and the limited development of cos(X) when X goes to 0 is cos(X) = 1 + eps(X)
      so we have tan(x/n) = sin(x/n)/(cos(x/n) = ( x/n + eps(x/n) ) / ( 1 + eps(x/n) ) -> ( x/n) / 1 = x/n
      I apology for my english, hope that still understandable...

  • @johanndiethelm
    @johanndiethelm 7 лет назад +22

    Could you explain the change to polar coordinates in integration?
    Edit: 100k HYPE!!

  • @Anteater23
    @Anteater23 7 лет назад

    Could you make a video on the epsilon delta definition of limits please as you're the best at making us understand maths.

  • @thesunisdark13
    @thesunisdark13 6 лет назад +1

    Isn't y=cx, where c is a constant and sin(c)=0 (meaning c is equal to n*pi for some integer n) also a solution? Was this solution lost when dividing by sin^2(u) without checking the cases where it was zero?

  • @khynvlhun5595
    @khynvlhun5595 7 лет назад +1

    Thank you so much

  • @solinothman4094
    @solinothman4094 5 лет назад

    You have no idea how you're great thank uuuuu so much for your help 🌷❤

  • @mapclickerandy
    @mapclickerandy 7 лет назад +7

    Do you a patreon account ? I'd love to support you and the great content you are providing :)

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  7 лет назад +10

      Hi Sam, thanks so much for wanting to support me and liking my channel. However, I do not have a patreon account. You can simply keep supporting me by watching my videos and sharing them with others. Greatly appreciate your kindness!
      bprp

  • @dalcidiogo8597
    @dalcidiogo8597 7 лет назад +6

    I've just 1 question sir:
    Why did you put the constant C on the right limb only?

    • @reetasingh1679
      @reetasingh1679 7 лет назад +21

      Dalci Diogo Let's say you put constants after integration on both sides... C1 and C2. After integration you could just transpose C1 to the right side so the constant is C2-C1 on the right side and no constant on the left side. But C2-C1 is still a constant. So we just simplify it and write it as C.

    • @dalcidiogo8597
      @dalcidiogo8597 7 лет назад +3

      Reeta Singh Ok, now I understand. Thanks so much

  • @naraind1489
    @naraind1489 7 лет назад

    Can you do a video on how to solve any integral( i mean like what to do when these type of integral comes like splitting the integral, when to do u substitution)

  • @Epyxoid
    @Epyxoid 3 года назад +1

    A rookie question: why can we separate du/dx as du and dx? d/dx() is one operator isn't it? I mean it looks logical, but what's the math behind it?

    • @davidaquino812
      @davidaquino812 Год назад

      Probably because dx, dy, du, dw, whatever expression, are infinitesimal number. I would like to know a better explain too

  • @duncanw9901
    @duncanw9901 7 лет назад

    You should do a video about laplace transformation.

  • @alejorabirog1679
    @alejorabirog1679 7 лет назад

    More!!

  • @BenjaminKeilty
    @BenjaminKeilty 7 лет назад

    Cotangent isn’t one-to-one. When you apply inverse cotangent, do you need a k*pi anywhere to correct for that?

  • @curiousminds301
    @curiousminds301 7 лет назад

    What is fourier transform

  • @bendova9836
    @bendova9836 7 лет назад +1

    Hey can you do a video on how to find the limit as n goes to infinity of: 1/(n^(1/n)) ? ?

    • @frede1905
      @frede1905 6 лет назад +1

      Ben Dova We have:
      lim n->inf. (1/n^(1/n))=lim n->inf. (1/n)^(1/n). Use substitution x=1/n. When n goes to infinity, x goes to 0+ (since 1/n is a positive number because n is approaching positive infinity, the positive number 1 divided by another positive number is also positive). So we have
      lim n->inf. (1/n)^(1/n)=lim x->0+ (x^x)=1. lim x->0+ (x^x) is approaching 1 if x is approaching 0 from the positive side of x.
      So lim n->inf. (1/n^(1/n))=1.

  • @yoyoezzijr
    @yoyoezzijr 2 года назад

    would it work to then write it as y = x arccot(lnx + C)?

  • @bunkydunk7500
    @bunkydunk7500 Год назад

    Great. Video!

  • @ghaiethalwi2575
    @ghaiethalwi2575 7 лет назад +1

    Sir please do a video on laplace transform... thanks

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  7 лет назад +1

      3lwii müsiic i have them already. Check my playlists

    • @kye4840
      @kye4840 7 лет назад +1

      Also, I think 3blue1browns next video is going to be on Laplace transforms

  • @ang_gml
    @ang_gml 5 лет назад

    5:48
    This is how King Crimson works

  • @kenankenobe6968
    @kenankenobe6968 7 лет назад

    great job !

  • @matthewzuelke6721
    @matthewzuelke6721 7 лет назад +1

    How can you make "u" an angle (inside the sin) as well as normal number. I thought you couldn't do that

    • @hOREP245
      @hOREP245 7 лет назад

      u isn't really being an angle in this case, its just another number.

    • @matthewzuelke6721
      @matthewzuelke6721 7 лет назад

      Horep Alright, thanks

  • @NhacLeNgan
    @NhacLeNgan 6 лет назад

    Music at 7:07 ? 老師!

  • @Anteater23
    @Anteater23 7 лет назад

    Could you bring sin(y/x)^2 to the left hand side on line 2 and then do integrating factor method?

  • @rodrigosuarezcastano732
    @rodrigosuarezcastano732 6 лет назад

    Thank you so much for the awesome video, i recently had a calc 3 test and i was wondering if you could help me with the answer to one question:
    A particle moves with the position function r(t)=(8cos(t),8sen(t),8t)
    Fin the normal normal component of acceleration
    You think you could help me? Zorry is it doesn't make sense, its in spanish and i roughly translated it myself

  • @abhishekbansal5323
    @abhishekbansal5323 7 лет назад

    Sir I have a question for u.If e^(x*i)=x Find x

  • @Chai_yeah
    @Chai_yeah 7 лет назад +1

    Plz do something cool for 100k special !!
    Like idk , livestream of solving integrals togetger would be fun I guess , up yo you!

  • @rodrigosuarezcastano732
    @rodrigosuarezcastano732 6 лет назад

    Did you asked your girlfriend to make a full cover of the outro song? Also love you differential equations videos, i really struggle with it a lot in college but your videos have really helped me, could you try to make more multivariable calculus videos?

  • @dhanshreegangwal938
    @dhanshreegangwal938 7 лет назад

    Sir that -sin^2x will become positive as after going to other side it will add in it

  • @رسوليقدوتي-ق9ط
    @رسوليقدوتي-ق9ط 5 лет назад

    Sir please
    Can you to solution
    int e^cosx (sin (sinx))dx

  • @BigRedProductions11
    @BigRedProductions11 7 лет назад

    Shouldn’t there also be a +pi*n at the very end where n is an integer

  • @gauravmanwani9148
    @gauravmanwani9148 7 лет назад

    Give a try to this:
    I= int(x^x - x^(-x))dx
    from 0 to 1

  • @HJ_Krypton
    @HJ_Krypton 7 лет назад +1

    Hey blackpenredpen, your thumbnail shows the wrong question from the one you solved in the video, the thumbnail one doesnt have the x term in the -sin^2 (y/x) part at the end

  • @KidNamedVashin
    @KidNamedVashin 7 лет назад

    Impressive but I do have a question. Isn't cot^(-1)(c) just a constant? It doesn't really matter if you put it in or out it's still a constant. I thought it doesn't matter but correct me if I'm wrong.

    • @ZipplyZane
      @ZipplyZane 7 лет назад +2

      I'll just say it mathematically. cot^-1(a+b) is not the same as
      cot^-1(a)+cot^-1(b).

  • @hecz0r
    @hecz0r 7 лет назад

    can you do a video of integral ( 1/(x+1)! )

  • @glydon-w2w522
    @glydon-w2w522 7 лет назад +2

    Sir please can you do my DE problem ... I tried 2 hour ...But failed ..
    x^2 (xdx+ydy) + 2y(xdy-ydx)=0

    • @glydon-w2w522
      @glydon-w2w522 7 лет назад

      Alien in disguise but then ... How to proceed after that ... Even if I assume now x/y=z then ... Nothing happens

    • @glydon-w2w522
      @glydon-w2w522 7 лет назад

      Alien in disguise btw your rearrangement was great

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 7 лет назад

      I think it is Bernoulli equation and can be easily reduced to linear
      x^2 (xdx+ydy) + 2y(xdy-ydx)=0
      Lets expand and group it
      x^3dx+x^2ydy+2yxdy-2y^2dx=0
      (x^3-2y^2)dx+(x^2y+2yx)dy=0
      x^3-2y^2+(x^2+2x)ydy/dx=0
      This equation can be written in the form
      dy/dx+P(x)y=Q(x)y^{r}
      but this is not neccessary
      Let substitute u=y^2 and then use variation of parameter or integrating factor to solve linear equation
      x^3-2y^2+(x^2+2x)ydy/dx=0
      2x^3-4y^2+(x^2+2x)2ydy/dx=0
      u=y^2
      u=2ydy/dx
      2x^3-4u+(x^2+2x)du/dx=0
      du/dx-4/(x^2+2x)u=-2x^3/(x^2+2x)
      It is also homogeneous in the form
      d/dx y(x)=y(x)/x+g(x)f(y(x)/x) and thats why substitution for homogeneous equation works
      Integrating factor of one variable also exists for this equation
      Bernoulli equation in the form dy/dx+P(x)y=Q(x)y^{r}
      has separable integrating factor

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 7 лет назад

      @Alien Your solution is nice and probably expected I found this form of homogeneous equation only in Maple documentation because scripts in my native language give only dy/dx=f(y/x) as homogeneous and that's why i firstly recognize this equation as Bernoulli

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 6 лет назад

      I found equation for you
      (3xy+y^2)+(3xy+y^4)dy/dx=0
      If we find nonzero functions such that
      yF(x+y)-3xG(x+y^3/3)=0 we can find integrating factor
      or it is another way to solve it

  • @hasanojan5570
    @hasanojan5570 3 года назад

    I don't know why he doesn't have so many likes

  • @adiadiadi333
    @adiadiadi333 7 лет назад +1

    Please solve this
    Integral sqrt(x^4+1)/(x^2+1)^2
    Atleast prove it cannot be done...i will be happy

  • @ІгорСапунов
    @ІгорСапунов 6 лет назад

    There is missing solution: -sin^2 (u)=0, then u=pi*k, when k is real. Then y=x*pi*k is also a solution

  • @HrushikeshNaik1650763n73
    @HrushikeshNaik1650763n73 7 лет назад +1

    I am pretty sure. Everyone here loves maths.

  • @sansamman4619
    @sansamman4619 7 лет назад

    I have a question:
    cot(x)=1/tan(x).
    cot^-1 (x) = ( 1/tan(x) )^-1
    cot^-1 (x) = tan(x)
    why didn't you/he do that?

  • @Julienkerlero
    @Julienkerlero 7 лет назад +2

    Don't forget the synthesis ... So you can solve it in R

  • @rudrakshkanekar2239
    @rudrakshkanekar2239 7 лет назад +1

    (dy/dx) = (4x+y+1)²
    Can you please solve this sir

  • @zza7195
    @zza7195 7 лет назад

    d²(y)/d(x)²= -(sin(y)/3π)
    I'm just curious ...

  • @sofianechalal3433
    @sofianechalal3433 7 лет назад +1

    Nice ! :)

  • @marcioamaral7511
    @marcioamaral7511 7 лет назад

    You don't like the "prime" notation for derivatives?

    • @blackpenredpen
      @blackpenredpen  7 лет назад +1

      in diff eq, I prefer either dy/dx or the D notation.

    • @marcioamaral7511
      @marcioamaral7511 7 лет назад

      blackpenredpen I would love too see you using the D notation like Dr Peyam

  • @sagarsaini6191
    @sagarsaini6191 7 лет назад

    Sir please help 1/(x+e^x) & (cos(x^2))/(x^2)

  • @jarikosonen4079
    @jarikosonen4079 6 лет назад

    In case calculator has no cot-1(x) use tan-1(1/x)..?

  • @holyshit922
    @holyshit922 7 лет назад

    Try this one
    (1-x^2)d^2y/dx^2-xdy/dx+9y=0
    This equation can be solved by guessing particular solution and reduction of order
    but shows that inverse trig substitutions are not always the fastest one
    By the way polynomial is particular solution to the equation i gave
    The integral which you will get I would calculate using Euler subsitution
    because in my opinion is faster than inverse trig substitution
    Actually i gave this equation for you to show that
    Yes you use inverse trig substitution to get rid of radical
    An example of trig substitution is Weierstrass substiutution
    Do you see the difference ?

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 7 лет назад

      You didn't see mistake ? your will not work Try to solve it as i suggested and you
      will get integral which shows that Euler substitution can be faster then inverse trig substitution
      You probably didn't try to solve it in that way (guessing polynomial solution and reduction of order)

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 7 лет назад

      I could record video but my English is not very well and I have limited time on youtube
      I know he is Chinese but i think that he at least lives in English spoken country

  • @chenchangpo
    @chenchangpo 7 лет назад

    希望你能證明isinθ+cosθ=e^iθ!
    我在i^i那部卡在這裡😢

  • @yuval2be
    @yuval2be 7 лет назад

    Please help me solve that: 10^x=x+100

  • @deemotion
    @deemotion 7 лет назад +1

    Amazing! and dy/dx=k* y* ln(a/y) please can you help me?

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 7 лет назад +4

      If a and k are constants you have separable , problem with integral ?

    • @deemotion
      @deemotion 7 лет назад

      yeah... the explicit solution is y=a*e^((e^-kx)/A) and A=e^C ????

  • @LeandroAngeloTrinidad-od8fg
    @LeandroAngeloTrinidad-od8fg 4 месяца назад

    More

  • @GabrielPohl
    @GabrielPohl 7 лет назад

    Help: integrate sin(ax)sin(bx)sin(cx)

  • @adityavij667
    @adityavij667 7 лет назад

    Sir please help me in this
    Prove that
    Sin(2π÷7) +Sin(4π÷7) +Sin(8π÷7) =√7÷2

  • @kevinz.a.z.
    @kevinz.a.z. 7 лет назад

    n=a+bi, f(a+bi)=b+ai, f(n)=?

  • @holyshit922
    @holyshit922 7 лет назад

    The x is missing in intro

  • @alfiangunawan5946
    @alfiangunawan5946 7 лет назад +1

    😮

  • @benjamind2423
    @benjamind2423 7 лет назад +1

    Wich interval are you working on? How can you be sure you haven't divided by zero when you divided by X. Moreover you're not able to use inverse trigo function if you don't check the interval

  • @chriswild4653
    @chriswild4653 7 лет назад +2

    i have a D.E. easy (4yx^3)dx+(1+x^4)dy=0 IT`s AWESOM.
    but, this is not easy 2y(x^2-y+x)dx+(x^2-2y)dy=0

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 7 лет назад +1

      First D.E. is separable
      For the second exists integrating factor of one variable
      Multiply second equation by e^{2x} and you will get exact equation

    • @chriswild4653
      @chriswild4653 7 лет назад

      Yes, the second multiplied by e ^ (2x) the whole equation.

    • @holyshit922
      @holyshit922 6 лет назад

      Second will be also Bernoulli after substitution y = 1/2 (x^2-u)
      (x^2-u)(x^2-1/2(x^2-u)+x)+(x^2-(x^2-u))1/2(2x+du/dx)=0
      (x^2-u)(1/2x^2+x+1/2u)+1/2u(2x+du/dx)=0
      1/2(x^2-u)(x^2+2x+u)+xu+1/2udu/dx = 0
      1/2(x^4+2x^3+x^2u-ux^2-2xu-u^2)+xu+1/2udu/dx = 0
      1/2*x^4+x^3-xu-1/2u^2+xu+ 1/2udu/dx=0
      x^4+2x^3-u^2+udu/dx=0
      udu/dx-u^2=-(x^4+2x^3)
      du/dx - u=-(x^4+2x^3)*1/u
      and that is Bernoulli equation

  • @john-athancrow4169
    @john-athancrow4169 6 лет назад

    See, its always U! Hahahahahahahahahaha

  • @flixxk.9582
    @flixxk.9582 7 лет назад

    do you forget the minus?

  • @DaveHelios99
    @DaveHelios99 4 года назад

    But... this is not homogeneous, this is an exact differential equation

  • @Hogojub
    @Hogojub 7 лет назад +7

    Why is everyone calling him "Sir"?

  • @abirkhan2133
    @abirkhan2133 7 лет назад

    Sir, it will be my pleasure if you solve this problem for me,,
    |2x/(x-2)|

  • @ranitchatterjee5552
    @ranitchatterjee5552 7 лет назад +2

    Easy 😁

  • @chrislarson5097
    @chrislarson5097 7 лет назад

    Typo in thumbnail

  • @astrorocko
    @astrorocko 7 лет назад

    ISI PISI!

  • @BigDBrian
    @BigDBrian 7 лет назад

    have a completely false solution for fun:
    dy/dx = y/x - sin²(y/x)
    d/d * y/x = y/x - sin²(y/x)
    y/x = y/x - sin²(y/x)
    0 = - sin²(y/x)
    y = 0; x ≠ 0 OR y/x = π*k

  • @pedrocusinato02
    @pedrocusinato02 7 лет назад +1

    If ln(-1)=iπ then I ln(1)=2iπ=0 then i=0. Where is the error?

    • @natan9065
      @natan9065 7 лет назад +4

      Pedro Lima It's not 2iπ = 0, it's ln(1) = 2πni where n is an integer ≥ 0. This doesn't imply that 2πi = 0, only that ln(1) has multiple values just like √(4) = ±2

    • @pedrocusinato02
      @pedrocusinato02 7 лет назад

      natan9065 Thanks! But why can't n be

    • @natan9065
      @natan9065 7 лет назад +2

      Pedro Lima I don't see why not, negative just means rotating the opposite direction! Thanks

    • @robinsuj
      @robinsuj 7 лет назад

      natan9065 the log function is only defined in {z€C / z=/=0 and O=/=pi}. Note that I'm using € as the "belongs to" simbol and O as theta (to signify angles).
      Although, if memory is working well (which it probably isn't), you can define it for O=pi. But you'll lose some other angle.