RSA -- The Math

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  • Опубликовано: 1 ноя 2024
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Комментарии • 29

  • @vishalmishra7018
    @vishalmishra7018 Год назад +1

    I wish I could double like this video. All these years of trying to understand how RSA works and it is finally clear to me. Professor you have a gift of explaining things. Thanks for making this video.

  • @karthikkrishnan6026
    @karthikkrishnan6026 4 года назад +3

    The a-ha moment when the math suddenly clicks and you appreciate how beautiful it is, is priceless. Thank you for this video!

  • @DanielDa2
    @DanielDa2 6 месяцев назад

    You have provided an extremely elegant summary of the fundamental idea. It is usually lost in most material: in the sea of computations for some or in that of lemmas and proofs for others. Thank you.

  • @AdrianVrabie
    @AdrianVrabie 8 лет назад +2

    great video! i like how u delve into the concepts of the theory and not on the algorithm of solving 2+2

    • @GideonTheTeacher
      @GideonTheTeacher  8 лет назад +1

      Adrian -- you got it, the concept stands on its own merit without the mathematical camouflage.

  • @CamiloSanchez1979
    @CamiloSanchez1979 10 лет назад +1

    Thank you for these videos, they are so enlightening, you explain very well.

  • @eng60340
    @eng60340 3 года назад

    Thanks. Good explanation! Most ppl only explain the algo.

  • @dannys2817
    @dannys2817 5 лет назад

    Thanks for this video, you made RSA easier to understand

  • @mnazaal
    @mnazaal 6 лет назад

    Most videos I saw just showed the algorithm then proved it, I like this one way better since you derived it from first principles. Thank you very much

  • @sputnickers
    @sputnickers 10 лет назад +4

    I understood everything up until 10 minutes. The step at 10:00 was pretty big. Not sure I followed.

    • @Marco-hw7nc
      @Marco-hw7nc 2 года назад +1

      For anyone still wondering, it is actually easy:
      you have _k Phi(n)+1 (mod Phi(n))_
      just remove the +1 for a moment, obviously _k Phi(n) (mod Phi(n)) = 0_ for any integer _k_
      adding back the +1 the result is of course 1, giving the equation _ke kd = 1 (mod Phi(n))_

    • @ravel1
      @ravel1 2 года назад

      @@Marco-hw7nc thanks

  • @miguelsantos8972
    @miguelsantos8972 4 года назад

    Very good video! Thank you!

  • @ikirstenHD
    @ikirstenHD 10 лет назад

    Cool Stuff,
    Learning about PKI for the Network + Exam, how did I reach here lol

  • @yusefskaff2601
    @yusefskaff2601 9 лет назад +1

    you are a great prof !!

  • @americaninseoul
    @americaninseoul Год назад

    quantum computing: im boutta end this mans whole career

    • @GideonTheTeacher
      @GideonTheTeacher  Год назад

      Indeed, but we have a remedy: eprint.iacr.org/2021/1510

  • @mostafaramezani8364
    @mostafaramezani8364 7 лет назад

    Great! Thank you :)

  • @Gattomorto12
    @Gattomorto12 5 лет назад

    thanks. you're good

  • @VladimirDjokic
    @VladimirDjokic 8 лет назад

    Great!

  • @eggtimer2
    @eggtimer2 3 года назад

    Dude, you have random mod n appearing and disappearing. Love the idea of the video but there are big gaps.

  • @eggtimer2
    @eggtimer2 3 года назад

    I think you are confusing congurnecr and equal signs.

  • @eggtimer2
    @eggtimer2 3 года назад

    This seems to miss the point that we need to exchange information about each other's keys ...

    • @GideonTheTeacher
      @GideonTheTeacher  3 года назад

      We exchange public key, not the private key

    • @eggtimer2
      @eggtimer2 3 года назад

      @@GideonTheTeacher agree, so there are a few congruent signs missing plus that the maths you outlined would require the message to be coprime with your p*q=n.

    • @Aetna1207
      @Aetna1207 2 года назад

      to save time and board space, he did not write "mod n" for some equations. as long as message is not p or q (not likely, as both are big), message will be co-prime with n.

  • @Ellenki_007
    @Ellenki_007 4 года назад

    I love cryptography