Math Induction Trick RARELY taught in class!

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  • Опубликовано: 5 ноя 2024

Комментарии • 59

  • @riadsouissi
    @riadsouissi 3 года назад +15

    That is a very nice proof of AM-GM worth remembering.

  • @yoav613
    @yoav613 3 года назад +1

    I saw the proof forAMGM with regular induction and this forward backward induction is great !

  • @bastiana.n.4277
    @bastiana.n.4277 3 года назад +4

    Wonderful! This makes me think that there has to be an even more powerful formulation of induction that enables to deduce other formulations (like the one you presented on the video) that might make solving a particular problem easier

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад +3

      There are several. We will see more in this series!

    • @bastiana.n.4277
      @bastiana.n.4277 3 года назад +1

      @@ProfOmarMath Great, I'll wait patiently

  • @thedoublehelix5661
    @thedoublehelix5661 3 года назад +1

    The backwards part did involve some pretty slick moves. But it makes sense to choose the average of the previous numbers as the nth term

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад

      Ya after filming I realized it wasn’t as straightforward as I had in my head

  • @SimchaWaldman
    @SimchaWaldman Год назад

    WOW! Real art of induction proofs!

  • @hrs7305
    @hrs7305 3 года назад +2

    Nice ! Looking forward to more videos on induction

  • @euqed
    @euqed 3 года назад +2

    Awesome ! One thing I'd really love to see is a proof of how all the variations of classical induction are logically equivalent

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад

      You can actually deduce some on your own! For example the 2n could have been replaced with 3n and things would still work. It’s kind of a directed graph problem with vertices being the natural numbers

    • @georgedoran9299
      @georgedoran9299 3 года назад

      @@ProfOmarMath I’d imagine that there’s an infinity of possible induction techniques, you just need to ensure you cover all the cases.

  • @coldsoup49
    @coldsoup49 3 года назад +1

    How do you always find such cool topics??? I am in awe

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад +2

      Thanks coldsoup! Decades of experience! More to come 😍

  • @physicsnovice656
    @physicsnovice656 3 года назад

    I remember when my calculus professor showed us this example during exercise sessions in 2010. He mentioned that he knew about it from Knuth's book Concrete Mathematics that I bought later, but I didn't go over it 100%.

  • @advaithkumar5966
    @advaithkumar5966 3 года назад

    could you make a video on how to use this technique on the problem 'IMO Shortlist 2016 A1'? Thanks again

  • @yoavshati
    @yoavshati 3 года назад

    You should prove by induction that proving by forward-backward induction works

  • @danelrosen5461
    @danelrosen5461 3 года назад +1

    Awesome proof!
    New subscriber :D

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад +1

      Thanks Santiago! Enjoy the channel 😍

  • @goodplacetostop2973
    @goodplacetostop2973 3 года назад +5

    As the saying almost goes, take a big jump forward to take a step back. 😝

  • @joseluishablutzelaceijas928
    @joseluishablutzelaceijas928 3 года назад

    This was REALLY cool! Thank you very much!

  • @mathsandsciencechannel
    @mathsandsciencechannel 3 года назад +1

    Well done sir. Love the video. Thanks

  • @aashsyed1277
    @aashsyed1277 3 года назад +4

    I like you and Micheal penn

  • @aashsyed1277
    @aashsyed1277 3 года назад

    I love this channel

  • @ghimpugelu5375
    @ghimpugelu5375 3 года назад +1

    can someone explain why choosing an= (a1+a2+...+an-1)/(n-1) does not lose generality when proving p(n) -> p(n-1)?

    • @bigjazbo9217
      @bigjazbo9217 Год назад +1

      I thought the same, but consider this: The AM-GM inequality for n numbers--where n is a power of 2--is proven true for any set of n positive numbers by forward induction. This is true for an arbitrary set of n positive numbers, so it will still be true even if one of those n numbers was specially constructed. Omar then demonstrated that for a special set of n numbers (n-1 arbitrary numbers plus one special number), the subset of n-1 arbitrary numbers also satisfies AM-GM. That means that if given any set of numbers where the number of elements is one less than a power of 2, we can add a special element to construct a special set of numbers of cardinality that is a power of 2, which we already proved by forward induction satisfies AM-GM, and which also implies that our given set of arbitrary numbers satisfies AM-GM. Now we know that all sets of numbers having cardinality one less than a power of 2 satisfies AM-GM. We can repeat the backwards induction process as far as necessary until we have proven AM-GM for all cardinalities between n and the next lower power of 2.

    • @comuniunecuosho-campulbudi7611
      @comuniunecuosho-campulbudi7611 11 месяцев назад

      p(2ᵏ) true
      ⇔p(n) true, n=2ᵏ for any x₁,...,xₙ
      ⇒p(n) true even after we change xₙ (to a specially constructed one as we like)
      ⇒p(n-1) true
      so indeed p(n)⇒p(n-1)

  • @kanewilliams1653
    @kanewilliams1653 3 года назад

    What software are you using Prof Omar? Love your red highlights that fade away.

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад

      Thanks Kane. I’m using GoodNotes on an iPad Pro!

  • @yassinezaoui4555
    @yassinezaoui4555 3 года назад

    Nice approach 8)

  • @antormosabbir4750
    @antormosabbir4750 3 года назад

    you can try bdmo 2020 higher secondary category's one of the problem. it needs this idea

  • @petrotkach8757
    @petrotkach8757 3 года назад

    Forward step can be any, right? ( For example, P(5k) )

  • @tomkerruish2982
    @tomkerruish2982 3 года назад

    Will you be covering transfinite induction?

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад +1

      I’m unsure yet because it might involve a long discussion of ordinals

    • @tomkerruish2982
      @tomkerruish2982 3 года назад

      @@ProfOmarMath You could do it for sets in general and only rely on the axiom of foundation, like how Conway did for his "one-line" proofs for the surreals. Namely, that if a property P of sets is such that, for any set x, if P holds for every element of x implies that P holds for x itself, then P holds for every set. As I write this, it occurs to me that it might be more appropriate for a course on set theory. I find it interesting, though, that there is no need for a base case, as P would necessarily hold for the empty set.
      Thank you for your response. I appreciate it.

  • @Mrpallekuling
    @Mrpallekuling Год назад

    This proof was discovered by the great Cauchy (1789-1857)

  • @sandorszabo2470
    @sandorszabo2470 3 года назад

    Clever.

  • @advaithkumar5966
    @advaithkumar5966 3 года назад

    is this method also known as 'cauchy induction'?

    • @ProfOmarMath
      @ProfOmarMath  3 года назад

      Yes!

    • @advaithkumar5966
      @advaithkumar5966 3 года назад

      @@ProfOmarMath thanks for your response! Also, could you make a video on how to use this technique on the problem 'IMO Shortlist 2016 A1'?

  • @aashsyed1277
    @aashsyed1277 3 года назад

    Nyc

  • @chandankar5032
    @chandankar5032 3 года назад

    Ah, the idea was to when one comes up with AM GM, it's easy to observe with assuming
    a+b/2 geq sqrt(ab) . We can do 4,6,,8... As any even number will be divided into to parts and base case can be applied.
    Similarly the other part, n positive numbers having am geq gm, well among thus n numbers, if we assume one is am of other n-1 s then we readily prove that for n-1 numbers. This the two statements.
    After the student observe these two, then you should tell them, the formal statement unless it's just checking and verifying.
    Another fun instance, say if I want to show identify permutation is even. Say if e has r cycles, it can be shown that it's essentially r-2 cycles, then r-4 cycles... I. E. P(r) implies P(r-2).
    So the crux of the matter is, there is a set at most countable, then by induction is just a way of saying one element generates other property s.t. all elements are covered. That property itself is equivalent to well ordering principle.
    Anyway, I'm glad I figure this chnanel (from Michael Penn)