All the respect in the world to professor Barton Zwiebach, one of the greatest lecturers I have ever seen, thanks for the inspiration from this short 14 mins clip that helped me finish my homework.
Very well explained! However, you should mention at 9:20 that we may use the well-known sampling property of the Dirac function (known also as the shifting property). This is why that "strange integral" must equal δ().
The Dirac distribution is the Fourier transform of unity and a special case of convolution, where A*f=g, g(x)=d(x-y). f(y)dy , if we imagine the gravitational interaction as a function of g(x) and the electromagnetic interaction as a function of f(y), then these forces (i.e. the lines of force) only interact when x is equal to y ( the Dirac impulse).
but i have a question, which is how that strange integral equals to delta function. I've get an proof by fourier transformation of delta function but then how to prove the fourier transformation? I mean that during the proof of fourier transformtion we have admitted that strange integral is delta function...
According to my first year maths class notes (Fubini theorem for babies), we can flip the order of the integrals as far as the two variables function is continuous !
Professor Zwiebach, an angel from Heaven to help the mathematically and "physics-cally" destitute. Absolutely great lecturer
All the respect in the world to professor Barton Zwiebach, one of the greatest lecturers I have ever seen, thanks for the inspiration from this short 14 mins clip that helped me finish my homework.
Very well explained! However, you should mention at 9:20 that we may use the well-known sampling property of the Dirac function (known also as the shifting property). This is why that "strange integral" must equal δ().
The Dirac distribution is the Fourier transform of unity and a special case of convolution, where A*f=g, g(x)=d(x-y). f(y)dy , if we imagine the gravitational interaction as a function of g(x) and the electromagnetic interaction as a function of f(y), then these forces (i.e. the lines of force) only interact when x is equal to y ( the Dirac impulse).
Very clear explanation and great quality!
Fo sho!
Thank you! This was VERY clear, 15 minutes well spent! 😊🙌🏽😁
been following you from 18.06! Good Work man!
If I ever be a professor I will try my best to dedicate myself like him ..
but i have a question, which is how that strange integral equals to delta function. I've get an proof by fourier transformation of delta function but then how to prove the fourier transformation? I mean that during the proof of fourier transformtion we have admitted that strange integral is delta function...
Absolutely well done and definitely keep it up!!! 👍👍👍👍👍
Benedict Cumberbatch
Yeah i was wondering that professor looks like somebody.
Harrison Ford, the Blade Runner ☺️
I don't see how this still holds for the temporal Ψ ...
Thanks a lot for the explanation
13:32 why it is an absolute value '|a|' rather than 'a' ?
Don't mind this question. Now I understand it.
@@yyc3491 btw why ?
Thank you, it's great explanation
Thanks ❤️🤍
This is helpful ❤️🤍
Thank you
Someone has the name of the math topic he is using to flip the order of the integrals ? I feel it is not very legit
According to my first year maths class notes (Fubini theorem for babies), we can flip the order of the integrals as far as the two variables function is continuous !
Great intuition but not very rigorous.
ruclips.net/p/PL1955A15B7F282A7F
Hahahahaha Umar Farooq Shaik
@@farooq8897
It can get even more complicated 🤣🤣🤣🤣
@@mohammadabdulla8601 I know..!
@X X not here to discuss the point of *a* lecture just pointing out a fact about *this* lecture.