Why a Magnetic Monopole Would Quantize all the Electric Charge in the Universe | Doc Physics
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- Опубликовано: 9 фев 2014
- Watch as Doc Schuster flubs his way through one of the most important Quantum Mechanics papers of all time.
It should be pointed out that PAM also predicted the existence of negative energy charges in 1929. They were experimentally verified in 1932! Genius.
I am so sorry about this video. I have no idea who my intended audience is. I sorta feel like people who understand it will either be bored or will just notice my inadequate explanation. To everyone else, it looks like mathematical handwaving and an arbitrary conclusion. I bit off too much here.
On the off chance that this DOES benefit you somehow, please let me know how much physics you have studied. Thanks in advance, internet punks.
You have great courage to try new things and develop new and enthusiastic ways of explaining physics. You have made hundreds of successful videos. It is unavoidable that once in a while you don't succeed. I greatly look forward to your next video.
Thanks, buddy. Still finding the lessons through which I can be most effective...
I doubt anyone coming to watch this vid finds the subject or your presentation boring! The final conclusion definately makes sense but getting there requires studying the subject.
I was longing for some sort of "geometrical" explanation for the equation in 6:54 if one even exists. Would really like to know the thoughts Dirac.
leksious
Dirac's 1931 paper uses methods and notation that are not very efficient compared to modern treatments. There are excellent intuitively appealing introductions to magnetic monopoles. I recently came along a nice one in the book by A. Zee, "Quantum Field Theory in a Nutshell". Of course this is in the middle of all kind of QFT stuff, which is not everyone's cup of tea. Point: if you want to learn about monopoles, look in modern texts.
If you want to explicitly study Dirac's thought, read the paper. YT makes a fuss about putting links in a comment, but the paper is freely available via a link in the wikipedia article "Magnetic monopole".
Dirac's notation is hard to recognize if you are used to modern physics. But what he does is completely clear and relevant. He uses the gauge nature of electromagnetism (without calling it that, because the terminology became popular only much later). He writes the wavefunction of a particle with an explicit phase factor, and allows this phase factor to vary in space. Inserting this into the Schrödinger equation (this treatment is non-relativistic), he obtains the correct equation for a particle in an electromagnetic field. In modern terms, this is the miracle of gauge theory: a global symmetry of the system, turned into a local symmetry, yields a force field. Force from symmetry, amazing!
The way Dirac works this out is completely straightforward, and a bit ugly (which I believe was hinted at in the video). The position dependent phase factor gets churned up into the derivatives of the Schrödinger equation. Dirac applies the trick of separation of variables in polar coordinates, i.e. disentangling the dependence on the distance from to the origin from the dependence on azimuth phi and polar angle theta. This means shoving all terms that depend on the radius to one side of the equation, and all the angle dependent terms to the other, and then noting that for them to be equal they both have to be equal to a constant. That is where the constant lambda comes from. The equation shown by Doc Schuster is just the angle part, which contains the interesting stuff. The sines and sec's and whatnot are not that interesting.
The crux of the matter is in section 2 of the paper (starting on p. 4): non-integrability of the phase of a wavefunction. The later equation is just an illustration, as pointed out in the video. Non-integrability. Wow, that sounds booooooring. It sounds like something from the mathematical smallprint written by insecure people and read by no one, like the warranty sheet that came with your toaster. But this is one of those rare occasions when the smallprint actually matters. There is something mathematically weird about the monopole problem, that is akin to the geometry of a black hole. You cannot obtain the field (electromagnetic vector potential in this case, and the spacetime metric for the black hole) everywhere in one go. If you try, you end up with a singularity that is not physical. You have to do it in two go's, and the field you obtain in each 'go' overlaps with the field from the other 'go' and together they cover all of space(time). It is this aspect of the theory that makes monopoles possible. It is the crux and really unavoidable. You will find it in every good modern treatment also. Dirac really did see the essence, even though he wrote things down differently then we do today.
Doc Schuster I came to this from your magnetic monopole video (which was great) and you completely lost me on this one. My physics stops at school-level, so when you broke out the maths it went completely over my head! Is it possible to describe this in mostly words and pictures?
the moment when you try to understand something and with every sentence you just got more question :P
dont stop....great stuff....totally confused but well worth the listen...
Magnetic Monopoles are discussed in Chapter 6 of Jackson's "Classical Electrodynamics" (2nd ed.).
You should be sponsored by sharpie
Chemical engineer. Studied qm as part of physical chemistry. I know just enough to nod my head along. I enjoyed your presentation and energy more than I cared about how you got there.
This was amazing. Exactly what I was looking for. !
You are inspirational! I love your passion.
keep goin physics rockstar :) were lovin it.
I have derived the equation by combining Schrodinger's wave equation with the electromagnetic's equation, and find the monopole magnet field is the gravitation's field. The gravitation's potential energy that comes from the monopole magnet is = ((uo*q/(4*pi*c))^2)*((2*pi*c^3)/h)*(m/r). The ((uo*q/(4*(pi^2)*c))^2) is Planck length squared, so : ((uo*q/(4*(pi^2)*c))^2)*((2*pi*c^3)/h) is G.
uo=4*pi*10^-7
c=speed of light
q=electron's charge
h=planck constant
r=the distance from the particle to a point
m=mass
Top, brou! tamo na luta da quantizeixiomn
Thought experiment: Magnetic charge = g, g = 1/2(hc/e2Pi) = .986634847 x 10-7 Kgm^3/As^3. The magnetic constant is 4Pi x 10^-7 Kgm/A^2s^2. There is only one magnetic monopole in the entire universe. It's signal density is 1/4Pi Am^2/s. (Kgm^3/As^3)/(Kgm/A^2s^2) = Am^2/s.
Appreciate this
Doc as a novice with a recreational interest in this field enjoyed your videos. I would like to mention that there is a coil that can produce a magnetic monopole. It is called a vortex coil. I think some videos by its creator Daniel Nunez on youtube may interest you. I would love to watch your interpretation of what is happening with the coil.
The distinction is that he may have created something that crams all the outgoing field into one location and separates it from the incoming field, but those two regions are still connected in a vortex coil. We could call that a "constructed" mag monopole. A natural magnetic monopole is necessary to quantize the electric charge, though.
I understand and thank you for your interpretation
I love the ending, I don't know why, I just do - _"but I think that's lame, let's just cancel out the 2pi. BYE"_
Explain why every physicist in the world seem to think monopoles like electrons, protons, and neutrons, will ever cluster to make a nucleus. They won't, but they wanna hear it anyway! I would love to see how the neutrons link.
Ooooh word!!!
just jammed here...it more understand with picturing..getting disaster after calculating..what is that?don't push it guys,we know what can this thing do to our head right...haha!!
Is mono poles a thing ? Are we mono-poling ? Is everything we understand is not ? And other questions ?
Maxwell’s second equation tells us that there are no magnetic monopoles.
Okay, but that's an empiric observation, not an immutable law of nature. The laws of electromagnetism can be expressed in a way which includes magnetic charges, and which is invariant to replacement of electric fields and charges with magnetic ones and vice versa. From that point of view, it's a matter of convention that for example electron has electric charge and not magnetic charge (or some combination of the two).
Oh I really love this video. Honestly, I'm commenting because I just saw that You apologized for making this video. What?! hahahaha. Why would You? I mean what? ahhh. If any, you should make more videos on modern physics!!!! And I will try to elaborate why I think so. Many, many kids in high schools don't know what to study on collage. They sort of like mathematics and physics and IT. And then, since IT sector is hyped in media as "sure job" they go to that collage, despite the fact that they may love physics more. (Make no mistake, I am not saying IT is less important than physics, neither that it is less interesting, moreover it's essential in many branches of physics) And even if they still wouldn't go to physics (which essentially doesn't matter) the crucial thing is that they will be motivated to read, to search, to look more videos, which I think is a whole point of online education. I think it's cool that you showed diff. eq. as a fun fact, and that conceptual knowledge is pretty enough. In addition to all, you have that enthusiasm in your voice, and I really believe you have fun while making this videos and I really don't see a bit of argument that would lead to you regretting making second of this video. [Speaking as a freshman of research physics department, who was very impacted by you and Brian Greene hehe :) ]
PS. when I read about Dirac, he was really into that principle of mathematical beauty. I really love it hahaha. What do You think about it?
Cheers!
+I Zugec I truly appreciate your encouragement! I will continue!
Super cool you lost me at the end tho. Also please watch the short video I posted . It’s a numeric sequence I believe when made into a 3d objects using magnets an mono pole magnets will produce insane amounts of electricity . How it works is the star goes inside the diamond the diamond goes inside the square . The star I believe will spin stupid fast and the devices will radiate electricity that’s what the cube encasing it is for, to absorb the waves and can be taped into . Now I’m not saying for sure 100% this works but I’ve been an electrician for 23 years I’ve seen a thing or two. Sorry for my lack of drawing skills. I’m a craftsman not an artist.
Calm down on the edge Doc
my first thought on magnetic monopoles is , don't exist, why study them? and why do they have characteristics while they don't exist?
lunghile theodore Great question. We don't know if they exist, so we really need to know what they would look like if they did. Also, their properties are inferred by analogy with electric charge. Many physicists believe that symmetry is an important governing principle in the universe. If so, there really ought to be monopoles.
Yes the analogy of electric charge could somehow explain the existence of these monopoles due to singular charges existing , but even charges themselves need an interaction to prove their existence(relative interaction) , i know i sound like the Greek guy aristotle , but i read something which said stars don't undergo perpetual motion which i found fascinating but yet true(source; wikipedia ,lol) , when you talk of symmetry it gets me curious to know how you ought to explain that , magnitude ,direction, how ?
i study enginnering and will become rich through energy.i think creating infinite energy through monopoles is quite a good investement
WiseLoneWolf kol E=mc squared(you get the idea), if matter is finite then enegy is finite becuase the speed of light has a limit, so that means the investement in monopoles as source of infinite energy will yield nothing becuase it is impossible , just ask the guys who thought perpetual motion was possible...
Why am I watching this
I haven't even complete highschool yet
We know that magnets are "bipolar" or whatever in nature and such and are physical things with magnetic force from both poles.
What would happen if we were to find an object that matches the properties of a monopole? Like a "rock" that only attracts the opposite. like a pure "North"? what would happen if we could touch it with our bare hands? I'm curious about these things and would like to learn just that eensy bit more.
If I sound like a noob about this then sorry, been a while since I studied any science properly.
That sort of question will be investigated by the synthetic mag. monopoles that have just been created by Hall et al. The short answer is that no one knows yet! Stay tuned for...PHYSICS!
Doc Schuster Thanks for replying so quickly man :D
Oh wow really? That's actually a thing that has happened recently? Oh man, I will be staying tuned for PHYSICS! Heck Yeah! This is gonna be pretty interesting whatever the result I think.
Yes. The work at Amherst prompted me to begin treating magnetic monopoles in a video or two. I'll be posting a video that hopes to explain their particular experiment in the next couple days. Rock on.
I look forward to watching your video on this :D
Keep up the science-ing friend, and rock on to you to.
Thanks, still don' t know what you're talking about.
Just when u think u are smart enough to understand anything, to only find out I dont have a clue whats all these even mean?
Howdy.
They say magnetic monopoles do not exist. Fair enough. But I say true electrical monopoles do not exist either. An electron always has a corresponding proton somewhere. There will alway be a field between the electron and its proton.
Likewise. There is always a magnetic field between a north and a south.
What's the big deal ???
The unit of an electric charge is Amp times time A*s = C. (Coulomb)
The unit of a magnetic charge is Volt times time V*s = Wb. ( Weber)
Magnetic charge is actually the same as flux. Sometimes the word induction ia used for flux.
Regards.
There's a major difference. Positive and negative charges can be separated from each other. You can have an electron in vacuum, far from any protons. But you can't separate north pole of a permanent magnet from south pole. When you try, you get two weaker permanent magnets, both with north and south pole. Electric fields are caused by particles with electric charge. But magnetic fields are not caused by particles with magnetic charge. They are caused either by moving electric charges, or by particles with an innate magnetic dipole moment. (E.g. electron acts like a small permanent dipole magnet - it has innate magnetic moment, caused primarily by its spin and electric charge. Again, there's a macroscopic analogy: a rotating electrically charged ball will exhibit a magnetic field.) Conversely, just like there are no known particles with magnetic charge, there are no known particles with electric dipole moment. Theory predicts that particles such as electrons ought to have a very small electric dipole moment, but this hasn't been observed (it's too small to measure).
@@MikeRosoftJH Howdy.
Yes You are 101% correct.
Regards.
phase angle math based
I have no idea what you said
But this guy can make a monopole magnet
James,
In order to proceed with engineering designs and optimizations, there is an engineering fee of $350.00. If you wish to proceed please let me know so we can make the arrangements to receive payment and so I can let our engineering and production staff
Thanks,
Business Development Manager
If your really asking for one
Internet punks
The problem is simple, there's but no reality in particles (bumping aimlessly thru space)? Because, "SPACE" has no properties, and doesn't do real estate? Peace Inertia
Quantum Physic
Copyright 2023 Wardell Lindsay
Electric Quantum q=25e/3 = 4C/3X
Magnetic Quantum w= 500Vt/X
Planck's h=qw=2CVt/3XP
Space z=w/q=500Vt/4C/
z=375 Vt/C =375 Ohm
real monopole math based
Magnetic monopoles are impossible. Magnetic flux is circuital; forming closed loops upon itself. There are no open magnetic flux lines. They cannot physically occur in reality, period. The only way a magnetic monopole could occur is if there was an open magnetic flux, however if this happens, the circuit is broken, nothing is there to replace the lost flow and the magnetic field dissipates. That is what happens when you heat up a magnet, causing the magnetic domains to randomly orient themselves. Physicists are lost in mathematics and their theories have no bearing on reality.
There is already problem with the quantization of electric charges - quarks are clearly violating this ;-)
are you believe that the particle called "electron" move?
the bumping particles religion.
Wooo. Big Ego Guy... I know nothing about this stuff but hearing you.... Does not matter if you are right... beurk attitude.
You seem too be babbling
Nobody can or will ever be able to make a monopole magnet. Anyone who claims to have done so please produce a picture of the iron filings pattern showing the magnetic flux. If the picture shows the flux going from N to S, then it's not a monopole. If the picture shows the N going to N then we'll have to rewrite the laws of physics. The flux pattern cannot exists and will not exists for these reasons.
Monopole flux is spiral. I have posted in linkedin the photo one year ago. The only one available in the world, no other webs.