This is a compelling argument, and I agree: there really is no way of choosing the "right" prior distribution based on no data whatsoever, and even if you could that prior would not be consistent.
Because they aren’t necessary, the point is that the area under the curve and the pdf itself are equivalent, he just put them there at first for clarity
The title is quite misleading, since you talk about the principle of indifference. You can define 'uninformative' otherwise, and then the concept becomes meaningful.
This is a compelling argument, and I agree: there really is no way of choosing the "right" prior distribution based on no data whatsoever, and even if you could that prior would not be consistent.
How did we just remove the integrals at 7:40?
Because they aren’t necessary, the point is that the area under the curve and the pdf itself are equivalent, he just put them there at first for clarity
Nice example - not seen it before.
Also at 8:11, why is P(theta) just 1?
Because it is a uniform distribution and has value 1 everywhere?
Yes, p(theta) is proportional to 1 because it’s uniform
The title is quite misleading, since you talk about the principle of indifference. You can define 'uninformative' otherwise, and then the concept becomes meaningful.