Type 1 improper integrals! calculus 2
HTML-код
- Опубликовано: 2 окт 2021
- We will solve 8 type 1 improper integrals for your calculus 2 class. A type 1 improper integral means we have to integrate over an infinite interval, such as from a to infinity, from negative infinity to b, or from negative infinity to positive infinity. An improper integral is a combination of integral and limit. So you must remember all the integration techniques and also how to take the limit.
Check out type 2 improper integrals: ruclips.net/video/w46sjRIkV7Y/видео.html
0:00 how do we do improper integrals (type 1 improper integral, 8 examples)
0:12 integral of 1/(x+1)^(3/2) from 0 to inf
3:17 integral of x^2/sqrt(x^3+4) from 0 to inf
5:59 integral of e^(1/x)/x^2 from 1 to inf
9:28 integral of ln(x)/x^2 from 1 to inf
13:36 integral of x/(1+x^4) from 0 to inf
17:11 integral of x*e^x from negative inf to 0
21:20 integral of cos(x) from 0 to inf
23:14 integral of 1/(x^2-x) from 2 to inf
-----------------------------
Support this channel and get my calculus notes on Patreon: 👉
www.patreon.com/blackpenredpen
Get the coolest math shirts from my Amazon store 👉 amzn.to/3qBeuw6
-----------------------------
#calculus #bprpcalculus #apcalculus #tutorial #math
Check out type 2 improper integrals: ruclips.net/video/w46sjRIkV7Y/видео.html
I really am blessed to be living in a time like this in terms of math learning. The trick you used for integration by parts was nuts and I would have never known it existed without this video. Great job.
Same here!
Which one?? I'm new here
Very good. Your videos helped me improve a lot in Calculus. Thank you!
23:04 The divergence of this Integral is similar to the divergence of the Infinite GP with Common Ratio -1, if you look at the graph of cosine x, it's area till any positive number, starting from 0, ranges between -1 and 1. And, it keeps doing so in a fix pattern, never approaching anything
The last question integral can be done by factoring x² and moving it to the numerator for the integral to become x^(-2)/(1-x^(-1)). Numerator is exactly the derivative of the denominator which gives you the result of the improper integral without solving the partial fractions
I like how maths works a week ago id know what was going on in his videos and once i started my integration classes, a week later i am able to understand every single thing.
You are a best teacher . This lecturer very important i appreciate .
I am Ethiopian student i watch your videos
I can gave good information .keep it up.
Thank you so much
Just a great explanation as usual
thank you very much sir u have enabled me to understand improper integrals
The happiest place for integration 🤓
Ikr
solving integrals is allways fun!!!
Agreed 👍🏻
Super helpful thank you so much!!!
Im confused, he plugs in the values for u without replacing u back with its x term, doesn’t he have to change the integration bounds? Or does it not matter for infinite stuff
Where can I find the list???
17:09 Is still find it weird that the area under the graph of a purely algebraic function, has π in it
Man is the goat❤
3:43
::x sees a difficult integral::
::u comes along::
u says, "I'm in my happy place ... I'm in my happy place .. I'm in my happy place..."
24:25= factoring x^2 would've left you with 1/(x^2 (1- 1/x)) and in if u= 1- 1/x then du= 1/x^2 and the whole integral becomes 1/u
This video has made me a better person 😭💔🙌🙌🙌
example 4 why don't you substitute 1 and infinity in lnx as the pervious example
I LAB U TNX FOR THIS VIDEO
The way the infinity is substituted as the limit is not correct. You have to make a definite limit and then take the limit to the infinity. If the limit diverges then you have to use Cauchy's Principal Value theorem. Just wanted to make sure everybody gets the correct way of doing it.
thank you sir
can someone explain to me what is the list? maybe in my country we use another therms for that
Leaving this here for someone if they also want to know. I think the list is just a list of common functions or examples that he uses a lot in his problems. Without the list you can use L Hopitals rule and differentiate top and bottom of fraction and get (1/x)/1 which is just 1/x and the limit of that to infinity is just 0.
2:06 why is it the reciprocal? when i did it, i took the integral we usually take and got -1/2. so i got -1/(2sqrt(u)).
I got the same thing😢
i love you math papa
U got this guys😂😂😂
I hate it when he smiles go fo difficult things 😅😂😂😂
Anyway he's a genius ❤️
totally agree!!!
What list?
Diverges to DNE is the name of my black metal doom goth project
those are easy, on my test we'd get improper integrals that couldn't be integrated. instead we had to use different tests for convergence
Hope you passed it!
Superb😅
I'm confused... in 18:40 he said e to negative infinity equals zero. Then around 20:13 he was saying in x/e^infinity the e is infinity. If x and e are both infinity then yes, it equals zero. But if e is 0 then i think the lim equation is undefined. Can someone explain?
lim x -> -inf (x/e^-x)
Well, lets subs that
-inf/e^-(-inf)
-inf/e^inf
Which do you think the value "explode" faster?
e^x >> x, Case similar to x/x^2 or 1/x
This is an assessment without mathematical rigor but "is seen intuitively"
Très bonne vidéo, j'ai beaucoup appris de celle ci. Cependant à 18:21, je pense que la réponse est 1-e au lieu de -1+e. Vérifiez svp, car lorsqu'on inverse les bornes d'une intégrale, On multiplie l'intégrale par le signe -, chose qui n'a pas été faite dans ce cas. Depuis le CAMEROUN
honestly i wish i had just ignored my professor and learnt from you from the start. he’s nice and very smart but wow he’s a bad teacher.
What about this integral
1/sinx.
Trig sub 😅
Given: integral 1/sin(x) dx
Strategically multiply by sin(x)/sin(x):
integral sin(x)/sin(x)^2 dx
Use the fundamental Pythagorean identity to rewrite sin(x)^2:
integral sin(x)/(1 - cos(x)^2) dx
Let u = cos(x), thus du = -sin(x). Rewrite in the u-world:
integral -1/(1 - u^2) du
This we can recognize a relationship to the derivative of arctanh(u):
d/du arctanh(u) = 1/(1 - u^2)
Thus our integrand is d/du -arctanh(u)
Result:
-arctanh(u)
Recall u = cos(x), add +C and we have our solution:
integral 1/sin(x) dx = -arctanh(cos(x)) + C
This integral diverges when its bounds approach asymptotes, such as x=0 and x=pi. If we integrate it a second time, it will produce improper integrals that converge, when bounds approach the original asymptotes. I'll leave that as an exercise to you.
thank you daddy
isn't infinity over infinity an indeterminate form?
Yes. Infinity over infinity is an indeterminate form.
I dont think this method works when integral is 1 to infinity and is 1/(2x+1)^3 dx
I get -1/100
dat beard tho
10:42 but isn't it negative in the law vu-∫vdu
The negative sign from the original IBP formula, is accounted for in the signs column of the IBP table. The signs column starts on +, and alternates.
i love you
Kuya, chinese ka po ba?
Can you explain this in maithali ?🙄😛
*By the list??!*
He explained in this video: ruclips.net/video/pGLOqedrk1s/видео.html
@@Joca-by1pd
It seems I missed that video!
Thank you so much my friend
yeah but you can simply do lhospital to do the limit
I wish he still had that beard.
Someone to like my comment🙏🙏🙏🙏
SHOW ME THE SECRET WEAPONS!!!!
To do**