Nooo, I need more of these videos :( Please make more as son as possible because I find them very educational and the quality is supreme. Keep up the good work!
Hi Prof Michel. I noticed that transformation of sources (thevenin norton equivalence) can be used instead of KCL which makes the gain expression more understandable. For example, if we transform the 3 thevenin circuits at the non-inverting input to their norton equivalent, we easily find the voltage at the non-inverting terminal which is just ohm's law - the product of the sum of the 3 norton current sources and the parallel resistances of the 3 norton resistances. Then this voltage is converted to current by resistor Ri and converted back to voltage by Ri + Rf. Source Transformatio and Ohm's Law is a very powerful combination. The gain expression you arrived at shows this. Thanks again for your video lectures sir. They provide us with the necessary concepts to breakdown the complex.
@@MichelvanBiezen Ahh okay I understand since 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 but is it really okay since cross referencing in the figure they don't share the same voltage nodes v1 v2 and v3?
Lovely and nice video!!! But I am a little confused about how can we use 1 over Rtotal as the 1/R1, 1/R2 and 1/R3, would you explain it a little bit for me😁
hey prof, i have just finished high-school,am i ready to start from chapter one with the electrical engineering classes you have ? or should i study something before that. i am following this chapter about opAmps and i can understand most of the things.
You will be able to understand a fair amount of the electrical engineering videos, but I suggest you learn calculus and differential equations before you attempt the entire course.
Camera Crew to Prof. van Biezen (over and over again), "Stay out of the line of sight between the camera and what you're writing please." He just gets so caught-up in solving the problems that he just forgets!
again, use case of this?when in real life would we use a summing amplifier? Importance, use case, trade offs, etc.. Needs to be a translation to industry use.
Where exactly is Vb? And why is it almost equal to Va? edit: ok Vb is Ii*Ri, still dont know why its almost equal to Va edit2: ok so Vb and Va aren't actually equal, but Va is 0. I believe you should have started directly with Vb instead of Va, at least in my opinion and with all due respect. I still appreciate the videos.
THE REAL PROFESSOR ( THE TEACHER WHO KNEW HOW TO TEACH LECTURES CLEARLY)
Thank you. Glad you like our videos.
Nooo, I need more of these videos :( Please make more as son as possible because I find them very educational and the quality is supreme. Keep up the good work!
sir -- your each and every lecture is the very best on internet -- short , simple and to the point --thank u sir
Hi Prof Michel. I noticed that transformation of sources (thevenin norton equivalence) can be used instead of KCL which makes the gain expression more understandable. For example, if we transform the 3 thevenin circuits at the non-inverting input to their norton equivalent, we easily find the voltage at the non-inverting terminal which is just ohm's law - the product of the sum of the 3 norton current sources and the parallel resistances of the 3 norton resistances. Then this voltage is converted to current by resistor Ri and converted back to voltage by Ri + Rf. Source Transformatio and Ohm's Law is a very powerful combination. The gain expression you arrived at shows this. Thanks again for your video lectures sir. They provide us with the necessary concepts to breakdown the complex.
i just need to comment on my appreciation again, you are so humble with your explanations, so precise and straight to the point.
Thank you. We appreciate your positive feedback.
you are the best Sir!!!
#RespectFromSouthAfrica
Welcome to the channel!
Thanks alot sir🙏🙏
Respect from #INDIA 🇮🇳
Glad you found our videos! Welcome to the channel! 🙂
it was one of the best parametric op amp questions I ve ever seen.
thank you sir
Glad you liked it! 🙂
Thank you sir, you're a genius !
I am not a genius, but you are welcome. 🙂
Hey prof thanks .Your explanation and derivation was simple and clear .Really helped me in my exams.
Do R1, R2, R3 have different values? Does Rf have different values than R1, R2, R3?
Yes, for a gaining ratio at the output
Thank you for the great lectures !
Awesome sir. Thanks a lot
hey ,,
can you do a video about butterworth filters "second and forth order" please
Best Regards
One of your loyal fans
I think 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 is not the same as 1/RT, since adding fractions is not the same as adding whole numbers.
That is the correct equation for adding the resitance of resistors in parallel.
@@MichelvanBiezen Ahh okay I understand since 1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 but is it really okay since cross referencing in the figure they don't share the same voltage nodes v1 v2 and v3?
Great video. Thanks
You are welcome!
Lovely and nice video!!! But I am a little confused about how can we use 1 over Rtotal as the 1/R1, 1/R2 and 1/R3, would you explain it a little bit for me😁
When resistors are in parallel, that is how the total resistance in calculated.
@@MichelvanBiezen Thank you!!!!
hey prof, i have just finished high-school,am i ready to start from chapter one with the electrical engineering classes you have ?
or should i study something before that.
i am following this chapter about opAmps and i can understand most of the things.
You will be able to understand a fair amount of the electrical engineering videos, but I suggest you learn calculus and differential equations before you attempt the entire course.
thanks i will go with your advice.
in the previous video u made Va approx 0, why didn't u try that here? Thanks for your help.
🌺🌺
How would you write the equation if you have n number of input signals?
We should get a software for demonstrate it. Super complex
Thank you so much
You are welcome.
Nice!!
Thanks!
is this non-ideal like Va and Vb aren't equal to 0?
Sir, you never fail to save me in my exams. Thank you!
Glad to hear it.
you are awesome!
Why is I_f + 0 = I_i? Why is the non-inverting terminal 0?
Thank you sir
symmetrical summing amplifier means
Are u asking or giving a statement??
Matthews Malatji asking
Can we solve the problem by setting the equation like: i1 + i2 + i3 + if = ii ?
Try it and see if it works.
hey man! please try to write on the board in a way such that camera can see what you are writing. don't be a wall between these.
Camera Crew to Prof. van Biezen (over and over again), "Stay out of the line of sight between the camera and what you're writing please." He just gets so caught-up in solving the problems that he just forgets!
@@MichelvanBiezen stop recording when he does that.
sir i cant find electrical engineering playlist
All the videos are easy to find from the home page of the channel. Did you try that?
Do you always buld the equation using high potential - low potential?
In Video 3 you did it differently. I am really confused :(
You don't have to set up the equation from high potential to low potential. It works both ways.
again, use case of this?when in real life would we use a summing amplifier? Importance, use case, trade offs, etc.. Needs to be a translation to industry use.
Measuring error. Super important for PID controllers, so this is used in almost every automated system.
Ohhh I thought all the currents are entering and no one is leaving it turns out the one that is leaving is I=0 LOL
Where exactly is Vb? And why is it almost equal to Va?
edit: ok Vb is Ii*Ri, still dont know why its almost equal to Va
edit2: ok so Vb and Va aren't actually equal, but Va is 0. I believe you should have started directly with Vb instead of Va, at least in my opinion and with all due respect. I still appreciate the videos.
The rules of an ideal OpAmp are: 1) No current is flowing in or out of the inputs. 2) The OpAmp tries to keep the inputs the same voltage