Hi Mam/sir I would like to drop by and say thank you. I took my exam last Dec 5 2024 and got my results today. I pass the exam. Watching ur videos helped me a lot. God bless 😊
@ Thank you. I was so scared of the result since I was not able to prepare for the exam. I only got 2 days to review so I just watched your videos and it indeed help me. The exam was categorized into 4. Nursing Fundamentals,Adult Nursing, Maternal and Child Nursing and Nsg Management and Leadership. There is only one question for calculation which I am happy about haha. Lots of questions on maternal and child though.
kindly make a video of about 150 question that contains all the topics Maternal, med surg, psychiatry etc etc including research and leadership with the correct proportion of number of question per topic.... somewhat like a real examination thanks a lot
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a key indicator of how well warfarin is controlling blood clotting. The therapeutic range for INR with warfarin therapy is typically between 2.0 and 3.0, depending on the condition being treated. An INR of 4.5 is significantly above this range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This elevated INR suggests that the client is at a higher risk for bleeding complications and may require urgent intervention, such as adjusting the warfarin dose or administering reversal agents. a) INR of 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for patients on warfarin therapy. This low INR suggests that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient, potentially putting the patient at risk for clot formation rather than bleeding. b) Platelet count of 150,000; A platelet count of 150,000 is at the lower end of the normal range (150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm³). While thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) can be a concern in various contexts, it is not the most immediate concern compared to an elevated INR in the context of warfarin therapy. d) Hematocrit of 45%; A hematocrit of 45% is within the normal range for adults (approximately 40% to 50%). This result does not indicate an immediate issue related to warfarin therapy. In summary, an INR of 4.5 is the most concerning laboratory result for a client taking warfarin due to the significantly increased risk of bleeding. QUESTIONS 36; For a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving anticoagulation therapy, the lab value that indicates therapeutic anticoagulation is: B) APTT 1.5 to 2 times the control value Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) is monitored for patients on heparin therapy. For therapeutic anticoagulation with heparin, the APTT should be 1.5 to 2 times the control value (baseline). This indicates that the anticoagulant effect of heparin is within the therapeutic range, helping to prevent clot formation effectively without excessive bleeding risk. A) INR 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is within the normal range for individuals not on anticoagulant therapy. For patients on warfarin therapy, the therapeutic INR range is generally between 2.0 and 3.0 (sometimes slightly higher depending on the condition). Therefore, an INR of 1.0 indicates that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient. C) Platelet count of 100,000: A platelet count of 100,000 indicates thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). While it is important to monitor platelet count, especially because thrombocytopenia can be a complication of heparin therapy (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia), it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. D) Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL; A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL indicates anemia. This value does not reflect the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy directly. While monitoring hemoglobin is important for assessing potential bleeding or other complications, it does not specifically indicate whether the anticoagulation is therapeutic. THANK YOU !!!
Patients on long-term steroid therapy (such as prednisone) are at risk for adrenal insufficiency, especially during times of physical stress, such as surgery. Corticosteroids suppress the body’s natural production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, and this can impair the body’s ability to respond to stress. Adrenal insufficiency occurs when the adrenal glands cannot produce enough cortisol to meet the body's increased needs during surgery. Cortisol is essential for regulating blood pressure, blood sugar, and the body’s immune response, all of which are particularly crucial during surgical procedures. If the patient has been on high-dose or long-term corticosteroid therapy, the adrenal glands may not be able to produce enough cortisol in response to the stress of surgery, which can lead to an adrenal crisis. This can result in symptoms such as low blood pressure, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and even shock if not addressed promptly. Why the other options are secondary concerns A) Increased risk for infection: Steroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection, but this is not as immediate a concern as adrenal insufficiency during surgery. The risk for infection should still be monitored, but it’s not as urgent as addressing the need for stress-dose steroids to prevent adrenal crisis during surgery. B) Hyperglycemia: Long-term steroid use can lead to increased blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia), but the immediate priority before surgery is ensuring the body has enough cortisol to respond to the surgical stress. Hyperglycemia is a concern for post-operative management, but the immediate concern in this case is the patient's ability to handle the stress of surgery. C) Delayed wound healing: Steroids can impair wound healing by suppressing the inflammatory response and reducing collagen formation. While this is a concern for recovery after surgery, it is not the priority before or during surgery.
Both airborne and contact precautions are needed to prevent the spread of varicella, so while the question specifically asked about the type of isolation, the most important isolation strategy to use in the hospital is B) Contact precautions because the virus can be spread by direct contact with lesions. Airborne precautions (e.g., private room with negative pressure, N95 mask, and limiting visitors). Contact precautions (e.g., gloves and gowns for healthcare workers, limiting contact with lesions, and cleaning surfaces that may be contaminated with the virus).
correct answer is A A clear liquid diet is necessary to ensure that the bowel is clean and free of solid residues. This helps the physician get a clear view of the colon during the procedure. The clear liquid diet usually starts 24 hours before the colonoscopy to allow adequate time for the gastrointestinal tract to clear. Proper bowel preparation is critical for the success of the colonoscopy, as any residual stool can hinder the examination and potentially require repeat procedures. B; Full liquid diet for 24 hours before the procedure: This is not appropriate, as full liquid diets can leave residue that may obstruct visibility during the colonoscopy. C; Regular diet up to 12 hours before the procedure: This is incorrect because solid foods can leave residue in the intestines, compromising the quality of the procedure. D; No special preparation needed: This is incorrect, as bowel preparation is essential for an effective and safe colonoscopy. THANK YOU !!!!
Both airborne and contact precautions are needed to prevent the spread of varicella, so while the question specifically asked about the type of isolation, the most important isolation strategy to use in the hospital is B) Contact precautions because the virus can be spread by direct contact with lesions. Airborne precautions (e.g., private room with negative pressure, N95 mask, and limiting visitors). Contact precautions (e.g., gloves and gowns for healthcare workers, limiting contact with lesions, and cleaning surfaces that may be contaminated with the virus).
correct answer is A Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to increased potassium excretion, potentially causing hypokalemia (low potassium levels). To counteract this, patients are often advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas, oranges, and spinach. Monitoring potassium levels and potentially taking potassium supplements as prescribed may also be necessary. b) Avoid exposure to sunlight; While some medications can increase sensitivity to sunlight, furosemide is not typically associated with significant photosensitivity. Therefore, this is not a primary concern related to furosemide therapy. c) Increase salt intake; Furosemide helps to reduce fluid buildup by increasing urine output, and it is generally used in conditions where fluid overload is a problem. Increasing salt intake could counteract the benefits of the diuretic and worsen fluid retention. Therefore, patients are usually advised to manage their salt intake according to their healthcare provider's recommendations. d) Limit fluid intake to 500 ml/hr; This recommendation is more relevant for specific conditions requiring fluid restriction. For most patients on furosemide, fluid intake should be managed according to their overall fluid balance and the guidance of their healthcare provider, rather than a strict limitation like 500 ml/hr. Fluid intake management should be personalized based on the patient's condition and treatment goals. THANK YOU !!!!! @NURSEBLESSING .
The appropriate nursing action when caring for a patient with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) B; measure and document the external length of the catheter. measuring the external length helps identify any changes that may indicate catheter migration or displacement. It’s essential for ensuring the catheter is in the correct position, which is critical for effective therapy and reducing complications A; flush the line with heparin every 12 hours: This may not be necessary for all PICCs and depends on the facility's protocol. Not all PICCs require heparin flushes. C; administer all medication through the same lumen: This is not advisable as it can increase the risk of incompatibilities and complications. It is often best practice to use different lumens for incompatible medications. D; avoid flushing the line to prevent clot dislodgment: Flushing is actually necessary to maintain patency and prevent clot formation, provided it is done carefully. THANK YOU !!!!!
Maam #53. The answer should be A… it’s written there AFTER 15 minutes… so slow infusion rate… If the reaction happened WITHIN THE 15 MINUTES it should be C- stop the transfusion.
Hello, do we still need to continue the transfusion even at slow rate after observing the patient has difficulty of breathing from receiving the blood? Or is there a new update for BT that I'm not aware about? Thank you for enlightening me.
A incorrect correct answer is B Levels below 3.5 mEq/L can indicate hypokalemia (low potassium), which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac issues. Levels above 5.0 mEq/L can indicate hyperkalemia (high potassium), which can also lead to serious cardiac problems. Therefore, the range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L is considered normal and safe for healthy adults. THANK YOU
#45, DM1 body can not produce own insulin so you need to inject, oral medication are just for DM2 patient, body can produce own insulin but not enough or "insufficient" and thats why oral meds is recomended to aid for insulin
#56 answer is B decrease the rate of fluid removal, you might answer C, whats the purpose of dialysis, to remove water and here you are you planned to add more water, you decrease the fluid removal because pt is having 86/54mmhg a hypotensive issue whice is due to hypovolemia, too much water removed, so to prevent the issue you have to lessen the water target to be remove....coz if you choosed C....give bolus of normal saline then the dialysis purpose is defeated coz you added more water.... stopping the dialysis to early even if the treatment is not yet done is unneccesarry because you can give interventions to correct hypotension without terminating the dialysis treatment. you should not elevate the head, this will worsen the hypotension of the patient, instead you elevate the foot of the patient thanks
#57 although A is partly correct you need to orient patient to reality that voices are not true, correct answer is B your main concern is knowing what he is actually hearing from his auditory hallucination, to assess wether the auditory hallucination is of great risk for his satety maybe it could be an auditory hallucination telling him to harm himself so thats the purpose you should ask what he is hearing..... thanks
All the necessary materials and past questions for the Kuwait Prometric exam are available here. Just focus on studying and understanding the content. Congratulations in advance, and I wish you good luck! Stay positive and calm. check out the videos, short video and quiz via the community tab, thank you
Thank you for pointing out the question to me, the correct answer is C Airborne precaution. Chickenpox (varicella) is transmitted through airborne droplets and aerosolized particles. The virus can remain suspended in the air and be inhaled by others even after the patient has left the area. Airborne precautions are required to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients and healthcare workers. This involves placing the patient in an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) with negative pressure, and healthcare workers should wear N95 respirators or other appropriate respiratory protection. a) Droplet precautions; Droplet precautions are used for infections spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or certain bacterial infections. Chickenpox requires airborne precautions rather than droplet precautions because the virus is transmitted through much smaller particles that can remain airborne for longer periods. b) Contact precautions; Contact precautions are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment, such as with MRSA or Clostridium difficile. While contact precautions might be used in conjunction with airborne precautions to manage skin lesions, they are not sufficient alone for chickenpox. d) Reverse isolation ; Reverse isolation (or protective isolation) is used to protect immunocompromised patients from infections. It is not applicable for patients with chickenpox, who are themselves contagious. DX airborne precaution * chickenpox * herpez zoster *measles *tuberculosis *smallpox DX contact precaution Monkeypox MRSA Ebola scabies clostridium difficles gastroenteritis hepatitis A herpes simplex impetigo rotavirus diphtheria etc DX droplet precaution meningitis, mump, influenza , adenovirus rubella, SARS, rhinovirus pertussis , , streptococcal pharyngitis , viral hemorrhagic fever etc Thank you!!!
google says both......contact and airborne.... directly touching the infectted person, saliva and mucos, and airborne thru cough and sneeze, so what now?
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a key indicator of how well warfarin is controlling blood clotting. The therapeutic range for INR with warfarin therapy is typically between 2.0 and 3.0, depending on the condition being treated. An INR of 4.5 is significantly above this range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This elevated INR suggests that the client is at a higher risk for bleeding complications and may require urgent intervention, such as adjusting the warfarin dose or administering reversal agents. a) INR of 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for patients on warfarin therapy. This low INR suggests that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient, potentially putting the patient at risk for clot formation rather than bleeding. b) Platelet count of 150,000; A platelet count of 150,000 is at the lower end of the normal range (150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm³). While thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) can be a concern in various contexts, it is not the most immediate concern compared to an elevated INR in the context of warfarin therapy. d) Hematocrit of 45%; A hematocrit of 45% is within the normal range for adults (approximately 40% to 50%). This result does not indicate an immediate issue related to warfarin therapy. In summary, an INR of 4.5 is the most concerning laboratory result for a client taking warfarin due to the significantly increased risk of bleeding. thank you .
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Mam i am presently studying 2nd year bsc nursing i am daily watching your videos may be help full in my future.thank you are ❤
Glad to hear that, Thank you !!!
Wish you goodluck
Hi Mam/sir I would like to drop by and say thank you. I took my exam last Dec 5 2024 and got my results today. I pass the exam. Watching ur videos helped me a lot. God bless 😊
congratulations to you . you did it 🤝🤝🤝. keep it up
@ Thank you. I was so scared of the result since I was not able to prepare for the exam. I only got 2 days to review so I just watched your videos and it indeed help me. The exam was categorized into 4. Nursing Fundamentals,Adult Nursing, Maternal and Child Nursing and Nsg Management and Leadership. There is only one question for calculation which I am happy about haha. Lots of questions on maternal and child though.
@NjAbelo great
Hi
@@favourconcy7787 AM here , how are you doing
Madam please share leadership and management questions also.Thanks😊
noted
kindly make a video of about 150 question that contains all the topics Maternal, med surg, psychiatry etc etc including research and leadership with the correct proportion of number of question per topic.... somewhat like a real examination thanks a lot
I will do that .
yehey thank you so much
Rationale pls on q25 and q36, thank you
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a key indicator of how well warfarin is controlling blood clotting. The therapeutic range for INR with warfarin therapy is typically between 2.0 and 3.0, depending on the condition being treated. An INR of 4.5 is significantly above this range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This elevated INR suggests that the client is at a higher risk for bleeding complications and may require urgent intervention, such as adjusting the warfarin dose or administering reversal agents.
a) INR of 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for patients on warfarin therapy. This low INR suggests that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient, potentially putting the patient at risk for clot formation rather than bleeding.
b) Platelet count of 150,000; A platelet count of 150,000 is at the lower end of the normal range (150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm³). While thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) can be a concern in various contexts, it is not the most immediate concern compared to an elevated INR in the context of warfarin therapy.
d) Hematocrit of 45%; A hematocrit of 45% is within the normal range for adults (approximately 40% to 50%). This result does not indicate an immediate issue related to warfarin therapy.
In summary, an INR of 4.5 is the most concerning laboratory result for a client taking warfarin due to the significantly increased risk of bleeding.
QUESTIONS 36;
For a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving anticoagulation therapy, the lab value that indicates therapeutic anticoagulation is: B) APTT 1.5 to 2 times the control value
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) is monitored for patients on heparin therapy. For therapeutic anticoagulation with heparin, the APTT should be 1.5 to 2 times the control value (baseline). This indicates that the anticoagulant effect of heparin is within the therapeutic range, helping to prevent clot formation effectively without excessive bleeding risk.
A) INR 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is within the normal range for individuals not on anticoagulant therapy. For patients on warfarin therapy, the therapeutic INR range is generally between 2.0 and 3.0 (sometimes slightly higher depending on the condition). Therefore, an INR of 1.0 indicates that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient.
C) Platelet count of 100,000: A platelet count of 100,000 indicates thrombocytopenia (low platelet count). While it is important to monitor platelet count, especially because thrombocytopenia can be a complication of heparin therapy (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia), it does not directly indicate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy.
D) Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL; A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL indicates anemia. This value does not reflect the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy directly. While monitoring hemoglobin is important for assessing potential bleeding or other complications, it does not specifically indicate whether the anticoagulation is therapeutic.
THANK YOU !!!
51/64 tyvm ❤❤❤
great job , keep it up ,
Question No: 20 Correct Answer is Option C (Airborne Precautions).
Hi
Chicken pox belongs to airborne precaution.
Thank you so much
Aap dha preparation kr rhe ho??
You're most welcome
Question number 5 ans is A
Can you pls give me the rationale for question 52. Thanks
Patients on long-term steroid therapy (such as prednisone) are at risk for adrenal insufficiency, especially during times of physical stress, such as surgery. Corticosteroids suppress the body’s natural production of cortisol by the adrenal glands, and this can impair the body’s ability to respond to stress.
Adrenal insufficiency occurs when the adrenal glands cannot produce enough cortisol to meet the body's increased needs during surgery. Cortisol is essential for regulating blood pressure, blood sugar, and the body’s immune response, all of which are particularly crucial during surgical procedures.
If the patient has been on high-dose or long-term corticosteroid therapy, the adrenal glands may not be able to produce enough cortisol in response to the stress of surgery, which can lead to an adrenal crisis. This can result in symptoms such as low blood pressure, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and even shock if not addressed promptly.
Why the other options are secondary concerns
A) Increased risk for infection: Steroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection, but this is not as immediate a concern as adrenal insufficiency during surgery. The risk for infection should still be monitored, but it’s not as urgent as addressing the need for stress-dose steroids to prevent adrenal crisis during surgery.
B) Hyperglycemia: Long-term steroid use can lead to increased blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia), but the immediate priority before surgery is ensuring the body has enough cortisol to respond to the surgical stress. Hyperglycemia is a concern for post-operative management, but the immediate concern in this case is the patient's ability to handle the stress of surgery.
C) Delayed wound healing: Steroids can impair wound healing by suppressing the inflammatory response and reducing collagen formation. While this is a concern for recovery after surgery, it is not the priority before or during surgery.
Thank u mam
you are welcome 🤝🤝
Aap dha preparation kr rhe ho???
Is this helpful for bahrain nhra exam
yes
Mam plz share emergency department questions for moh interview and pretest
noted. thank you
In shock ist priority is trenlenberg position
for which question ??? so i can answer you
thank you
Question 31
#31 is B, blood will be back on the hearts level, D is wrong.....blood will be focused to the brain causing increase ICP
hi! can u pls rationalize #20 plsss?
Both airborne and contact precautions are needed to prevent the spread of varicella, so while the question specifically asked about the type of isolation, the most important isolation strategy to use in the hospital is B) Contact precautions because the virus can be spread by direct contact with lesions.
Airborne precautions (e.g., private room with negative pressure, N95 mask, and limiting visitors).
Contact precautions (e.g., gloves and gowns for healthcare workers, limiting contact with lesions, and cleaning surfaces that may be contaminated with the virus).
Mam 33 ans is c
correct answer is A
A clear liquid diet is necessary to ensure that the bowel is clean and free of solid residues. This helps the physician get a clear view of the colon during the procedure.
The clear liquid diet usually starts 24 hours before the colonoscopy to allow adequate time for the gastrointestinal tract to clear.
Proper bowel preparation is critical for the success of the colonoscopy, as any residual stool can hinder the examination and potentially require repeat procedures.
B; Full liquid diet for 24 hours before the procedure: This is not appropriate, as full liquid diets can leave residue that may obstruct visibility during the colonoscopy.
C; Regular diet up to 12 hours before the procedure: This is incorrect because solid foods can leave residue in the intestines, compromising the quality of the procedure.
D; No special preparation needed: This is incorrect, as bowel preparation is essential for an effective and safe colonoscopy.
THANK YOU !!!!
Mam explain questions no 20
Both airborne and contact precautions are needed to prevent the spread of varicella, so while the question specifically asked about the type of isolation, the most important isolation strategy to use in the hospital is B) Contact precautions because the virus can be spread by direct contact with lesions.
Airborne precautions (e.g., private room with negative pressure, N95 mask, and limiting visitors).
Contact precautions (e.g., gloves and gowns for healthcare workers, limiting contact with lesions, and cleaning surfaces that may be contaminated with the virus).
Madam please share NHRA question and answer
ok thank 🤝🤝👌
@@nurseblessing thank you ma'am
#50 maam please share the rationale why A lactulose, not C?
Mam,could you please explain question 39?
correct answer is A
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to increased potassium excretion, potentially causing hypokalemia (low potassium levels). To counteract this, patients are often advised to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as bananas, oranges, and spinach. Monitoring potassium levels and potentially taking potassium supplements as prescribed may also be necessary.
b) Avoid exposure to sunlight; While some medications can increase sensitivity to sunlight, furosemide is not typically associated with significant photosensitivity. Therefore, this is not a primary concern related to furosemide therapy.
c) Increase salt intake; Furosemide helps to reduce fluid buildup by increasing urine output, and it is generally used in conditions where fluid overload is a problem. Increasing salt intake could counteract the benefits of the diuretic and worsen fluid retention. Therefore, patients are usually advised to manage their salt intake according to their healthcare provider's recommendations.
d) Limit fluid intake to 500 ml/hr; This recommendation is more relevant for specific conditions requiring fluid restriction. For most patients on furosemide, fluid intake should be managed according to their overall fluid balance and the guidance of their healthcare provider, rather than a strict limitation like 500 ml/hr. Fluid intake management should be personalized based on the patient's condition and treatment goals.
THANK YOU !!!!!
@NURSEBLESSING .
@@nurseblessing Thank you so much for your brief explanation...This will help me a lot to understand in easy way...once again thank you
@@JasonsSons welcome 🤝🤝
24 Question rational mam
Madam is this for specialist or tech? Thank u
BOTH
tech
Mam this question they will on for Saudi prometric exam
yes, but don't expect words to words,
Mam plz explain q38
The appropriate nursing action when caring for a patient with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) B; measure and document the external length of the catheter.
measuring the external length helps identify any changes that may indicate catheter migration or displacement. It’s essential for ensuring the catheter is in the correct position, which is critical for effective therapy and reducing complications
A; flush the line with heparin every 12 hours: This may not be necessary for all PICCs and depends on the facility's protocol. Not all PICCs require heparin flushes.
C; administer all medication through the same lumen: This is not advisable as it can increase the risk of incompatibilities and complications. It is often best practice to use different lumens for incompatible medications.
D; avoid flushing the line to prevent clot dislodgment: Flushing is actually necessary to maintain patency and prevent clot formation, provided it is done carefully.
THANK YOU !!!!!
@@nurseblessing mam thankyou so much God bless you
@@fizaomer9523 welcome
A
for which question
Maam #53. The answer should be A… it’s written there AFTER 15 minutes… so slow infusion rate…
If the reaction happened WITHIN THE 15 MINUTES it should be C- stop the transfusion.
Hello, do we still need to continue the transfusion even at slow rate after observing the patient has difficulty of breathing from receiving the blood? Or is there a new update for BT that I'm not aware about? Thank you for enlightening me.
Mam 21 ans is a
A incorrect
correct answer is B
Levels below 3.5 mEq/L can indicate hypokalemia (low potassium), which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac issues.
Levels above 5.0 mEq/L can indicate hyperkalemia (high potassium), which can also lead to serious cardiac problems.
Therefore, the range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L is considered normal and safe for healthy adults.
THANK YOU
Tq mam
Chicken pox is airborne
Ma’am ratinonale for question no. 46, 56 & 57?
#45, DM1 body can not produce own insulin so you need to inject, oral medication are just for DM2 patient, body can produce own insulin but not enough or "insufficient" and thats why oral meds is recomended to aid for insulin
#56 answer is B decrease the rate of fluid removal, you might answer C, whats the purpose of dialysis, to remove water and here you are you planned to add more water, you decrease the fluid removal because pt is having 86/54mmhg a hypotensive issue whice is due to hypovolemia, too much water removed, so to prevent the issue you have to lessen the water target to be remove....coz if you choosed C....give bolus of normal saline then the dialysis purpose is defeated coz you added more water....
stopping the dialysis to early even if the treatment is not yet done is unneccesarry because you can give interventions to correct hypotension without terminating the dialysis treatment.
you should not elevate the head, this will worsen the hypotension of the patient, instead you elevate the foot of the patient
thanks
#57 although A is partly correct you need to orient patient to reality that voices are not true, correct answer is B your main concern is knowing what he is actually hearing from his auditory hallucination, to assess wether the auditory hallucination is of great risk for his satety maybe it could be an auditory hallucination telling him to harm himself so thats the purpose you should ask what he is hearing.....
thanks
Madam i m bsn staff nurse
great .🤝🤝
Hi mam already I send message to you mam
Mam i have promotric exam in 1st October mam plz send any questions paper that day.
Sorry mam I didn't enter country name- Kuwait.
All the necessary materials and past questions for the Kuwait Prometric exam are available here. Just focus on studying and understanding the content. Congratulations in advance, and I wish you good luck! Stay positive and calm.
check out the videos, short video and quiz via the community tab, thank you
AP ka exam ho gya
Pz dear muje be Kuwait k lye exam Dana hai pz help me
Did you pass your exams?
Q-20,ans-c(airborne precautions)
No you are wrong answer right is contact precautions ✅
Thank you for pointing out the question to me, the correct answer is C Airborne precaution.
Chickenpox (varicella) is transmitted through airborne droplets and aerosolized particles. The virus can remain suspended in the air and be inhaled by others even after the patient has left the area. Airborne precautions are required to prevent the spread of the virus to other patients and healthcare workers. This involves placing the patient in an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) with negative pressure, and healthcare workers should wear N95 respirators or other appropriate respiratory protection.
a) Droplet precautions; Droplet precautions are used for infections spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or certain bacterial infections. Chickenpox requires airborne precautions rather than droplet precautions because the virus is transmitted through much smaller particles that can remain airborne for longer periods.
b) Contact precautions; Contact precautions are used for infections spread by direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment, such as with MRSA or Clostridium difficile. While contact precautions might be used in conjunction with airborne precautions to manage skin lesions, they are not sufficient alone for chickenpox.
d) Reverse isolation ; Reverse isolation (or protective isolation) is used to protect immunocompromised patients from infections. It is not applicable for patients with chickenpox, who are themselves contagious.
DX airborne precaution
* chickenpox
* herpez zoster
*measles
*tuberculosis
*smallpox
DX contact precaution
Monkeypox
MRSA
Ebola
scabies
clostridium difficles
gastroenteritis
hepatitis A
herpes simplex
impetigo
rotavirus
diphtheria etc
DX droplet precaution
meningitis, mump, influenza , adenovirus rubella, SARS, rhinovirus pertussis , , streptococcal pharyngitis , viral hemorrhagic fever etc
Thank you!!!
google says both......contact and airborne.... directly touching the infectted person, saliva and mucos, and airborne thru cough and sneeze, so what now?
Q 25 ka answer c kaise hai koi explain kar skta hai ❓❓
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a key indicator of how well warfarin is controlling blood clotting. The therapeutic range for INR with warfarin therapy is typically between 2.0 and 3.0, depending on the condition being treated. An INR of 4.5 is significantly above this range, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This elevated INR suggests that the client is at a higher risk for bleeding complications and may require urgent intervention, such as adjusting the warfarin dose or administering reversal agents.
a) INR of 1.0; An INR of 1.0 is below the therapeutic range for patients on warfarin therapy. This low INR suggests that the anticoagulation effect is insufficient, potentially putting the patient at risk for clot formation rather than bleeding.
b) Platelet count of 150,000; A platelet count of 150,000 is at the lower end of the normal range (150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm³). While thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) can be a concern in various contexts, it is not the most immediate concern compared to an elevated INR in the context of warfarin therapy.
d) Hematocrit of 45%; A hematocrit of 45% is within the normal range for adults (approximately 40% to 50%). This result does not indicate an immediate issue related to warfarin therapy.
In summary, an INR of 4.5 is the most concerning laboratory result for a client taking warfarin due to the significantly increased risk of bleeding.
thank you .
Mam plz share moh interview questions for neurological icu
ok, i will , thank you
45/64
great , keep it up , thank you
A
for which questions !!
54/64
great score , keep it up !!!
44/64
great score. keep it up 🤝🤝
44/64
great
47/64
keep it up