Euler's brilliant solution to the Basel problem vs Cauchy's cool residue theorem approach

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  • Опубликовано: 19 июл 2023
  • Doesn't get much better than Euler vs Cauchy.
    Whose side are you on?
    Infinite product expansion of sin(x):
    • That's right, an infin...
    Infinite series and the residue theorem:
    www.supermath.info/InfiniteSer...
    You can follow me on Instagram for write ups that come in handy for my videos:
    maths.505?igshi...
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Комментарии • 45

  • @maths_505
    @maths_505  Год назад

    You can follow me on Instagram for write ups that come in handy for my videos:
    instagram.com/maths.505?igshid=MzRlODBiNWFlZA==
    If you like the videos and would like to support the channel:
    www.patreon.com/Maths505

  • @uxydna
    @uxydna Год назад +8

    Euler's idea to use coefficients is simply marvelous and so intuitive... deservedly a classic solution

  • @quentinrenon9876
    @quentinrenon9876 Год назад +10

    The second one is so wild!

  • @user-dm1tm8uw2o
    @user-dm1tm8uw2o Год назад +6

    Suiiii.He did it.Great presentation plus u found a way to combine the basel problem with complex analysis. At this point i may as well say thank you for ur service man ur a legend😂

  • @Galileosays
    @Galileosays Год назад +3

    Great. Nice to see how the the residue theorem can be applied to Basel's problem.

  • @anthony9656
    @anthony9656 Год назад +1

    Great presentation, thanks! On the Basil problem, there is a different more generalized approach due to Euler in the “spectacular sums” section of the book “The Calculus Gallery”. Definitely worth checking out.

  • @realcirno1750
    @realcirno1750 7 месяцев назад +1

    the fact that f(z)cot(pi z) has a residue of f(n) at integers where f has no pole is a genius insight that paves the way for so many summation problems (along with the fact that the sum of the residues is 0 if f is O(1/z^2) which this vid seems to leave out)
    i think cauchy wins, his method is more rigorous and generalizable, the class of series that can be evaluated with hadamard product is much smaller than those that can be evaluated with cotangent summation

  • @timemasterdm2462
    @timemasterdm2462 Год назад +2

    A beautiful pair of solutions.

  • @MrWael1970
    @MrWael1970 Год назад

    Very nice proof. But when you substitute by k = 1 at the first method, you forget to raise the power of (-1) to 1. Thank you very much for your amazing effort.

  • @saulmendoza1652
    @saulmendoza1652 Год назад

    Very neat!!

  • @zeggwaghismail827
    @zeggwaghismail827 Год назад

    Try to solve it using polynomials in cot^2.

  • @Ghaith7702
    @Ghaith7702 Год назад +1

    this is verry intresting but a bit too much for me unfortunatly awesome videos btw

  • @herbertdiazmoraga7258
    @herbertdiazmoraga7258 Год назад +2

    FUCKING LOVE COMPLEX VARIABLE MAAAAN

  • @Super-gt9lk
    @Super-gt9lk Год назад

    Hello, is it possible to integrate x/(e^x-1) from x=0 to x=infty WITHOUT using series expansion? Context: I am collecting the ways to compute sum(1/n^2). After Laplace transform and MCT, I encounter this integral, but it would make me a clown if I use series expansion since it just goes all the way back sum(1/n^2).

    • @tzebengng9722
      @tzebengng9722 Год назад

      There are many ways to determine the sums. You might like to check out my calculus web at firebase for a telescopic series with simple trigonometric integrals. It is much more elegant.

    • @Super-gt9lk
      @Super-gt9lk Год назад

      @@tzebengng9722 Although I couldn't find the desired answer there (since I am trying the technique in the paper I recently read, which is about evaluating infinite sum via Laplace transform), your website is extremely informative and would be helpful for my further studying. So...thanks a lot, I surely would check your website from time to time in the future.

    • @tzebengng9722
      @tzebengng9722 5 месяцев назад

      Yes, it is possible. You can re-express the integral in terms of log and find a suitable function to apply the differentiation under the integral sign. Check my calculus web again, I will the answer soon.
      @@Super-gt9lk

    • @tzebengng9722
      @tzebengng9722 5 месяцев назад

      With a change of variable, you can show that the integral is equal to 2/3 of the integral of ln(x)/(x^2-1) from 0 to infinity. Then you can apply differentiation under the integration sign to evaluate this integral. Use the obvious function 1/2 of ln(1+t^2(x^2-1))/(x^2-1). For details see my calculus web.

  • @aravindakannank.s.
    @aravindakannank.s. Год назад

    all videos are released at midnight in India

  • @anupamamehra6068
    @anupamamehra6068 Год назад

    hi math 505 i have a question for you: solve the indefinite integral: ∫ x^2 squareroot( 36 x^2 - 1) dx

  • @PotentialEnergy-ew1js
    @PotentialEnergy-ew1js Год назад +1

    Make a video how to learn maths... you're really impressive 🙏

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад

      Well the best way to learn it is to actually do it.
      Nd in case you're looking for resources then go for MIT and Harvard lectures on RUclips

    • @thewolverine7516
      @thewolverine7516 Год назад

      ​@@maths_505What about your promise? When are your full theory lectures gonna come?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад

      @@thewolverine7516 probably September.
      Thing is I really want them to be good so everytime I write up a lecture I end up redoing the whole thing cuz I feel it's not good enough. So its gonna take me a while to get em ready. Plus alot of work goes into making content for this channel so the routine is pretty tough these days.

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад

      @@thewolverine7516 I'll probably just start with one or two courses. Specifically complex analysis and differential equations and I'll build up from there

    • @thewolverine7516
      @thewolverine7516 Год назад

      @@maths_505 Take your time, I believe when you launch it, it's gonna be extremely resourceful.

  • @Predaking4ever
    @Predaking4ever Год назад

    Basel Wars (in the voice of Beast Wars)!!!

  • @oom_boudewijns6920
    @oom_boudewijns6920 Год назад

    3:22 why not multiply the pix^3 term with the x^2 terms??? u are ignoring the x^5 terms?

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад

      Multiply out the first few terms....you'll see why....

    • @jurgensand9201
      @jurgensand9201 11 месяцев назад

      I still do not understand: all x^5 terms are positive and do not sum to 0; correspondingly all x^7 terms are negativ and do not sum to 0, etc. So why do you ignore them?

    • @jurgensand9201
      @jurgensand9201 11 месяцев назад

      I understand now: the higher potential terms of x do not cancel out, you simply ignore them in your calculation. Finally you only compare the x^3 term with the x^3 term of Fourier expansion of the sin function. So, the corresponding comparations of the x^5, x^7 and so on terms could give more results ...

  • @user-ol1qs5he1y
    @user-ol1qs5he1y Год назад

    Second one best

  • @saulmendoza1652
    @saulmendoza1652 Год назад

    The link to the paper is dead

  • @danielrosado3213
    @danielrosado3213 Год назад +2

    epic

  • @mokhtarmougai5088
    @mokhtarmougai5088 11 месяцев назад +1

    that "It's Euler" reason can shut every hater mouth 💀

  • @giuseppemalaguti435
    @giuseppemalaguti435 Год назад +1

    Ok coool

    • @maths_505
      @maths_505  Год назад

      grazie per aver digitato in inglese questa volta😂

    • @giuseppemalaguti435
      @giuseppemalaguti435 Год назад

      @@maths_505 quando scrivo in italiano, scrivo numeri e formule...

  • @cycklist
    @cycklist Год назад

    Zed