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You are amazing! I don't understand why profs in university can't explain all of this that simple as you

I had a similar question to this, except that the wedge moved in the opposite direction as the mass slid down (but the mass stuck onto it).... Thus, like your video theta was the wedge's angle of inclination, but due to the wedge going the other way simultaneously, the "true course" of the mass sliding down would have a steeper angle. Is it necessary that the steeper angle and theta must add up to 90? It almost feels intuitively correct, but I'm having difficulty proving it...

Thank you

Tamil la solra

Thank you so much, I understand everything but I don't really understand why should we derivate acceleration respect to theta, how could this give us the angle that we want? Would you please explain it.

Wonderful explanation

Spanish

very helpful

idk how you dont have more views. thank you for your videos ! subscribed

Thanks for the vid bro

Very nice video. Thanks a lot. I spent much time thinking alone about the kinetics or dynamics of rolling and rolling after rest and rolling after slipping. Nearly no one talk about it or about its intuition. I am trying to figure something in case of rolling after slipping as in your case but there is a motor which keeps applying a force. If the force applied is greater than the max static friction, then it will slip or keep slipping and there will be acceleration at the c.m. so, it keeps rotating faster due to (f.app - f.kinetic) and also the c.m keep going faster due to the (f.app - f.kinetic) so the point of contact is never 0 because the tangential velocity due to rotation is larger than the velocity of c.m. Does that mean that the wheel im this case will not roll. Chatgpt say that after some time, it will roll because angular velocity will decrease, but how will it decrease although the there is torque applied! It say kinetic friction will reduce the angular velocity, but konetic friction is constant. Can you help me?

Can you make a video studying the values for a to make the series 1/(ln n)^a converge?

Sir got me feel sad about nodes

Thank you, I really liked how you explained what you were thinking and why you made your choices.

You just saved me dude. Cramming for an exam and had no idea what to do but this helped a ton. Great video

Thank you for the wonderful video, you explained this much better than my professor did in about half an hour <3

Conteudo top mano (I know how to speak english btw, nice video man!)

Cheer~~~situated or extending across something(of a line)😅

Why do u assume the thickness to be equal to arc length instead of straight line in the middle

thank you so much

Lol big "D"

merci le frère 🔥🔥🔥

The convention for torque is that a counterclockwise motion is a positive torque. And so on.

Thanks for the explanation, nice and simple

I'm an italian guy who loves physics. I've found the best place in the world! Very good explainations

good

Thanks sir, helpful video

I'm wondering why can we use conservation of energy in this problem. Isn't a part of them will be taken away by friction?

Is the distance traveled on this for part b only x-distance or total distance on the hypotenuse

Thank you.

thank you so much you DON"T understand how much this helped me

why cant we plug in the initial velocity for the kinetic energy and equate that to the spring energy? shouldnt they be the same since energy is conserved?

YOU'RE AWESOME! been looking up and down for an explaination I can understand. Your teaching logic is extremely helpful❤♥️. Thank you!

Nice approach thank you

I searched for nearly 30 min for this kind of video and finally found it thanks a lot

thank you for the clear explanation

How can work be done in a negative since area can never be in negative!???

You had said in the video that the attachment point of the string was at 80cm in discovering the relevant angle but then proceeded to find the arctan(40/60)?

This is an AWESOME model that explains exactly how it works. The “layers” of the galaxy are roughly elliptical and the interior ellipses spin faster than the outer ones due to keplers laws and then the edges of the ellipses run into each other and this is where gas and dust are pushed together triggering star formation and overdensities of the gas and dust which appear as bulky arms

This IS a neat trick and gives me all kinds of new visualiser ideas, I wish i had a fraction of your teaching ability 😅

Thank you for this.

Thank you bro, really appreciate it!

😮😮😮😮😮😮

Thanks a lot, Zak it was interesting. I have two may be stupid questions. 1) how to determine from which distance from our planet asteroids will be captured by gravity of our planet with final whan occurs landing asteroid on the planet? 2) Lets imagine same situation between two small size black holes (1cm in diameter) in the air of Earth which moves in some random direction with random speed at not crossing routes. Air has visconsity and if i understand physics correctly they will merged together at any distance because gravitation force has no limitation on the distance and their starting speed will be dissipated into gas heating by air drag forces. It that task i suppose ignore gravitation field of Earth for avoid problem of interaction between 3 body. Thanks in advance if you have time to answer thees questions!

If you get the function's height with respect to the horizontal distance traveled (the actual cross-sectional view), then solve the integral for its arc length, then I believe you can generalize the solution to its path length: v^2[sin(θ)+cos^2(θ)ln({1+sin(θ)}/cos(θ))]/g If you want to include an initial height, then it becomes a bit more complicated: {sqrt(v^2sin^2(θ)+2gh)sqrt(v^2+2gh)+v^2[sin(θ)+cos^2(θ)ln({sqrt(v^2sin^2(θ)+2gh)+sqrt(v^2+2gh)}/{v(1-sin(θ))})]}/{2g}

Thank you! Awesome derivations as always! One question - is the --(i+j) configuration in the acceleration vector function indicative of the centripetal acceleration pointing toward the center of the circle (as opposed to i+j or i-j etc.)?

For my case, I have a cylinder (with a hole inside) that is surrounded by a coil, and then I have a smaller cylinder that is made of magnets. The cylinder with magnets is going to move with a continuous veocity. The induced voltage desire is 2.5 V. I will like to know a formula or formulas that could relate the dimensions of the cylinder, the number of turns of the coil, and maybe the properties of the magnet, and obvisuly the velocity of the movement. I have a formula, but i do not know if this formula is correct: E = (μ0·4π ·2M)∙πr∙v∙cos(θ) μ0 = permeability of free space ( 4π∙10−7T∙mA). M = magnetic moment of the magnet (T∙m3 or Amp∙ m2 ) r = radius of the coil( since is a cylinder) ( m ). v = linear velocity ( m/s ) E = induced voltage ( Volts ). In this case a minimum of 2.5 V. θ = perpendicular angle to magnetic field ( rad ).

Hello. I am looking for some information about electromagnetic induction. In this case "Magnet Moving Through a Coil of Wire". I would like to know what type of formula should I use for this scenario.

Very shitty explanation. If you want a good one try khan academy. Type inline skier