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To be honest, I haven't thought through that enough to have a strong view yet. But my initial thought is that it's exactly the sort of available pun that would appeal to interpreters like Paul or the Gospel authors. Not out of the question that it would've been regarded as significant.

As for the wording of Gen 48:19, Paul's wording aligns with the Hebrew version rather than the extant Septuagint. The typical Greek equivalent of מלא is πλήρωμα, which is what Paul uses in Rom 11:26. The Septuagint harmonizes Gen 48:19 with Gen 17:4, whereas Paul's wording is a direct literal translation of the Hebrew phrase in 48:19. "Gentile" (גוי) nowhere refers to a tribe in Israel. "Lost" tribes isn't accurate nomenclature. Some remained in the land; that's where the Samaritans came from, remember. But many from the north were scattered, and the bulk of those who were scattered assimilated among the nations. That's not really disputable. I address these things in my books; if you're interested in more detailed discussions here, I suggest starting with those.

@@BiblePod which books do you recommend?

@@divinityofblackness6330 These two: The Idea of Israel in Second Temple Judaism: amzn.to/3AvtQYk Paul and the Resurrection of Israel: amzn.to/4dIhkCU

I don't think Paul anticipates a future national conversion of Jews to usher in the second coming, no. There's no indication of such in his letters at least. As far as a future literal regathering of the Israelites to the promised land, Paul does appear to have looked forward to that. That's what happens at the end, when the dead in Christ rise first and we who are alive and remain are caught up in the air to join Jesus as he returns to the Land (specifically the Mount of Olives). Everyone is gathered together to return specifically to the Land with Christ, so yes, he does anticipate a literal gathering in that sense.

@@BiblePod What about the partial hardening coming over UNTIL the fullness of the gentiles come in? Doesn't that seem to indicate there will be some sort of conversion? Obviously not all of the house...but a sizable amount at least? Some sort of sizable harvest to be reaped from Judah? If not, then was the restoration of Judah in the past, then? When a bunch of Jews converted on pentecost? What passages would you use to indicate a literal regathering from Paul, out of curiosity?

@@divinityofblackness6330 These questions are answered in more detail in my book, but no, 11:26 is not about a future conversion of Jews. For one thing, it’s about “all Israel,” not about Jews only. And the means of “all Israel” being saved is the ingathering of the “fullness of the nations.” That’s *how* “all Israel” is being saved, and until that process is complete, it won’t be done. I also addressed some of this (in brief) here: open.substack.com/pub/jasonstaples/p/paul-and-the-sequence-of-israels

​@@BiblePod So, if I am picking up what you are saying, the restoration of Judah is ongoing right now just like the restoration of Israel is? I'd also be curious what you make of Matthew 23:39 in this discussion of the restoration of Judah.

⁠@@divinityofblackness6330 Paul argues that both Judah and Israel are restored through the spirit poured out after Christ’s death and resurrection. As far as Matt 23:39, it has to be read together with Matt 26:64, another verse that talks about “seeing” him. It’s a conditional statement; the verse establishes the only condition by which the house may be preserved/restored, and it turns out not to be a fulfilled condition because they do not say this and the house is indeed destroyed.

What a load of crap.