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can we use this formula to find ytm?: "[facevalue(1+r)^n -facevalue]+(discount or -premium)"divided by no of years and then divide by market price and multiply by 100?

Easy and clear explanation ❤

this helped me a lot ! thanks

Those who do not understand bitwise operation cant even understand what you are saying...😂

Great explanation! As build function is a recursive function don't miss the base case which is: if not preorder or not inorder: return None

thank you very much, so easy to understand😊😊😊

great explanation, thanks!

Much clear explanation. thank you.

This code works OK in Python. It fails for C/C++/golang because of integer overflow when the numbers are too big. Here is the test case for integer overflow. l1 = [2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,9], l2 = [5,6,4,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,2,4,3,9,9,9,9]. Noticed that 1561 / 1563 test cases passed though.

very clear explanation and solution. thanks

Great explanation and a great solution. Thank you so much

I'm a bit confused, because first and second diagonal both have a cross over of hitting the row == col statement and row == col -2 on move [1, 1]. If we look at this scenario: A [ 1, 1 ] B [ 0, 0 ] A [ 0, 2 ] B [ 2, 2] A [ 2, 0] You could end up with A arr being [1,2] on indexes 6 and 7?

you explain very well but i think it can be more optimise- def reverseBits(self, n: int) -> int: result=0 for i in range(32): result = result << 1 | (n>>i)&1 return result

Where did $20 come from?

Thanks for this. Wouldn't this return the same result regardless of whether you're using inorder, postorder or preorder? You're sorting the result at the end.

Bro don't u got any friends?

Pedo glasses lol

This solution does not pass the time complexity test anymore in leetcode

perfecto

Really good explanation! Thank you so much!

That was super helpful and easy to understand

At 6:59 shouldn't the minimum value be 0 why was it at 6?

Really good video summary. Shouldn’t Year 3 cash flow be the face value and coupon i.e. 100+20?

Bravooooooo! I cannot thank you enough. I finally understand. Subbed & Liked! Keep up the gr8 vids bro

Nice explanation, cleared up a lot of questions. Thanks bro

Hey Sai, it's 2024 and this video just did wonders for me!

wow very good approahc. thanks man

good explanation brother.

This is medium on Leetcode

damn you made it too easy bro

made it much simple to understand!!! thanks :)

Very very very very very nice explanation man! Keep up the good work!

Amazing video, thanks

Thank you Sai Anish. Great video and explanation.

Very good, but would it work in java?

Fantastic explanation all round

Best explanation out there. I was stuck on this problem for so long before watching your video.

You just earned a subscriber, was so explanatory

Are you gay?

best explanation thank s

really helpful explanation and drawings, thanks Sai!

Nice. BUT HOW AM I SUPPOSED TO REALIZE THAT???

This was really helpfil

well explained!!! Thank you so much !

well explained!!! Thanks!

loved the explanation

❤

Omg, bro, thank you so much this is the best solution i have ever seen!!!! Really ez and optimal i do really like it!

Very useful this for me and all beginners... Thanks so much....

Very clear voice, and how beautifully explained. I'm impressed. Thank you so much.☺☺ Again, I liked your way of speaking a lot.