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Thank you

Love u mate

Your explanation has been the best one among the others I've watched. Thanks, sir :))

so good i like it

simple and straightforward ,I love it👌

excellent explanation, thanks man

Wow! This is great ~ completely answered my problem. Thanks for the video!!

Sir , could u tell how P is equal in both steel and Aluminium?

thanks for the effort and the simple explanation

This problem can be solve easier by drawing the Mohr's circle by ploting the values generated by the stress block in cartesian plane. After that, the rest is application of analytic geometry and trigonometry.

It was very helpful❤

4:45 you said Ta is counterclockwise (+) but Tb clockwise (-). I’m confused because you drew them the exact same way and earlier in the video at 3:32 it was counterclockwise, equal and opposite

Nice video, thank you Sir.

Thank you, this is the best explanation I've seen. Underrated!

nice 'radians'

Great video! 😂

thanks ❣

The direction of the ‘Greater Than’ symbol should be reversed. @0:45

how do we know to rotate it 70 degrees?

19.2 is wrong bruh u misculculated

where does 19.2 come from?

This would be perfect if you included all formulas used

Good job

Keep on the good work

Amazing

My guy you are the best

You are a great help my guy. Way much better than my Lecturer

Thanks bud

Thank you for this video. Can you brief about the shear stress on the cross section parallel to the length of beam.

Hi professor I have a question here.At interval a < x < L-a, why there's constant moment ?I mean it must be ,I guess

Thank you so much

At around 10:50, why is P and X-A positive if its creating a clockwise moment while P and X goes counterclockwise and create a negative moment?

Thank you very much

Hi. I had a question. Why do we not have a frictional force at point B? If the laws of friction apply, wouldn't it stand to reason that friction would be applied at both points? I am not saying you're wrong, I am just having trouble understanding the reasoning in this case.

💗

Torque is a type of moment, so I used the equation of equilibrium for a moment and got the same answers for your T at a and b, is this method also fundamentally correct?

Well articulated,,, genius stuff.. Siyabonga.. Twalumba

In this video, you do not account for the length from the bottom when considering the centroid of the 2nd part, hence you chose 1 in. Whereas in the video I have linked below, you do. Which is the correct way? And are they different?

This isnot correct!!

May I know, is this topic just all about proving whether its linearly in/dependent and not aiming for a general solution?

These are really good. Thank you for your time

Thank you so much

But what happened 30mmm can u tell me pls

how bd is o.6.? it is 0.615

answer should be .00527

6:26 ASS! ha ha

YOO great explanation! very clear and concise. My professor is horrible but you have made it 10x easier to understand. appreciate you bro

why did you divide pi by 4

Can you give reference book for above formula

Sir wont the net force on the hinge A be 0? as you found out the force due to one of the handles.. the force on A due to the other one is exactly opposite to that found in the problem resulting in net force being 0?